Nokea
An excessive response or activity of T suppressor cells would most likely be associated with
- A. autoimmune disease
- B. cancer
- C. allergies
- D. graft rejection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cancer. T suppressor cells play a crucial role in regulating the immune response to prevent excessive activation, which can lead to the development of cancer. In cancer, T suppressor cells may become dysfunctional, allowing cancer cells to evade immune surveillance and proliferate. Autoimmune diseases (choice A) are more associated with a breakdown in immune tolerance, leading to an overactive immune response against self-antigens. Allergies (choice C) involve an exaggerated immune response to harmless substances, primarily driven by IgE antibodies and other immune cells, rather than T suppressor cells. Graft rejection (choice D) is typically mediated by T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells targeting foreign antigens present in transplanted tissues, rather than T suppressor cells.
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Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is being admitted with Clostridium difficile?
- A. Teach the patient about proper food storag
- C. Order a diet without dairy products for the patient.
- D. Place the patient in a private room on contact isolation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the patient in a private room on contact isolation. This is important because Clostridium difficile is highly contagious, spread through contact with infected feces. Isolating the patient helps prevent the spread. A: Teaching about food storage is irrelevant to managing C. difficile. B: Administering medications is not mentioned in the question. C: Ordering a diet without dairy is not the priority; isolation is key to prevent transmission.
Which part of the digestive system is responsible for the mechanical digestion of food?
- A. mouth
- B. stomach
- C. small intestine
- D. large intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: stomach. The stomach is responsible for mechanical digestion through the churning and mixing of food with gastric juices, breaking it down into smaller particles. The mouth initiates digestion by chewing and mixing food with saliva, but it primarily focuses on chemical digestion through enzymes. The small intestine is where most of the chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occur, not mechanical digestion. The large intestine's main function is water absorption and the formation of feces, not mechanical digestion. Therefore, the stomach is the correct choice for mechanical digestion in the digestive system.
Which of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver?
- A. C
- B. D
- C. B12
- D. A
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vitamin C. Vitamin C is water-soluble and not stored in the liver. It gets absorbed in the intestines and any excess is excreted in the urine. Vitamin D (choice B) is fat-soluble and stored in the liver. Vitamin B12 (choice C) is also stored in the liver. Vitamin A (choice D) is fat-soluble and stored in the liver as well. Thus, the correct answer is A as it is the only water-soluble vitamin among the options.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a traditional cholecystectomy. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
- A. Prone
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Supported Sims'
- D. Dorsal recumbent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Semi-Fowler's position. After a traditional cholecystectomy, placing the client in a Semi-Fowler's position (head of the bed elevated at 30-45 degrees) helps promote lung expansion, improve breathing, and reduce the risk of aspiration. This position also helps with comfort and aids in preventing complications such as respiratory issues and surgical site complications.
A: Prone position is incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach and is not appropriate for a client after cholecystectomy due to the risk of putting pressure on the abdomen and surgical site.
C: Supported Sims' position is incorrect as it is typically used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for post-cholecystectomy care.
D: Dorsal recumbent position is incorrect as it involves lying on the back with knees flexed, which may not provide optimal support and comfort for a client post-cholecystectomy.
The pacemaker signal generated by the SA node spreads to the ventricles by passing through the AV node. What would happen to the contraction of the ventricles if there was a complete block at the AV node?
- A. the ventricles would cease beating
- B. the ventricles would beat very fast and uncontrollably
- C. the ventricles would contract rhythmically, but more slowly
- D. the ventricles would contract at the same rate as the atria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: A complete block at the AV node would prevent the transmission of the pacemaker signal from the SA node to the ventricles. As a result, the ventricles would not receive the signal to contract at their normal rate. Instead, they would rely on their inherent ability to generate impulses, resulting in a slower, but still rhythmic contraction. This scenario is known as an escape rhythm, where a lower pacemaker takes over in the absence of the SA node signal.
Summary:
A: the ventricles would cease beating - Incorrect, as the ventricles have their own intrinsic pacemaker.
B: the ventricles would beat very fast and uncontrollably - Incorrect, as a complete AV block would lead to a slower rhythm.
D: the ventricles would contract at the same rate as the atria - Incorrect, as the ventricles and atria have different intrinsic rates.