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As a charge nurse, which patient's nursing care would you assign to the LPN/LVN?
- A. A 48-year-old patient with cystitis taking oral antibiotics
- B. A 64-year-old patient with kidney stones and a new order for lithotripsy
- C. A 72-year-old patient with urinary incontinence needing bladder training
- D. A 52-year-old patient with pyelonephritis and severe acute flank pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with kidney stones requiring lithotripsy would benefit from the LPN/LVN's care. This task involves monitoring the patient's vital signs, providing pre and post-procedure care, and ensuring patient comfort. The LPN/LVN is trained to perform these duties safely.
Choice A is incorrect as the patient with cystitis on oral antibiotics can be managed by a nursing assistant under supervision. Choice C is incorrect because bladder training for urinary incontinence typically requires the skills of an RN due to the complexity of the intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the patient with pyelonephritis and severe flank pain requires immediate assessment and intervention by an RN due to the severity of the condition.
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On assessment of the patient with a renal calculus passing down the ureter, what should the nurse expect the patient to report?
- A. A history of chronic UTIs
- B. Dull, costovertebral flank pain
- C. Severe, colicky back pain radiating to the groin
- D. A feeling of bladder fullness with urgency and frequency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severe, colicky back pain radiating to the groin. This type of pain is characteristic of renal colic caused by a renal calculus passing down the ureter. The sharp, severe pain originates in the flank and radiates to the groin as the stone moves. Choices A and D are incorrect because they do not describe the typical pain associated with renal colic. Choice B describes dull, costovertebral flank pain, which is not characteristic of the sharp, severe colicky pain seen in renal colic. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate response based on the typical presentation of a patient with a renal calculus passing down the ureter.
Which classification of urinary tract infection (UTI) is described as infection of the renal parenchyma, renal pelvis, and ureters?
- A. Upper UTI
- B. Lower UTI
- C. Complicated UTI
- D. Uncomplicated UTI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Upper UTI. This classification describes infection of the renal parenchyma, renal pelvis, and ureters, which are part of the upper urinary tract. In upper UTIs, the infection involves the kidneys (renal parenchyma), renal pelvis, and ureters, whereas lower UTIs typically involve the bladder (cystitis) and urethra. Complicated UTIs involve structural or functional abnormalities of the urinary tract, making treatment more challenging. Uncomplicated UTIs refer to infections in otherwise healthy individuals with normal urinary tracts. Therefore, the description provided aligns with the characteristics of an upper UTI, making it the correct choice.
Which statement best describes Zidovudine:
- A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection
- B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia
- C. Peripheral neuropathy is a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine
- D. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form
Correct Answer: zidovudine diphosphate
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form (zidovudine diphosphate). Zidovudine itself is a prodrug that needs to be metabolized by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which inhibits HIV replication by acting as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This active form is essential for its antiretroviral activity.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection - This is incorrect because zidovudine is commonly used in combination with other antiretrovirals as a first-line treatment for HIV infection, not as an alternative treatment.
B: Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia - This is incorrect because zidovudine is primarily used in
A nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the health history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination, the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
- A. Nabothian cysts are present.
- B. The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
- C. The cervical surface is granular and red.
- D. Stringy, opaque secretions are present.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The cervical surface is granular and red. This finding indicates inflammation or infection, as a healthy cervix should appear smooth and pink. The presence of granular and red surface could suggest cervicitis or another underlying issue that needs further evaluation or treatment.
A: Nabothian cysts are present - This is a normal finding and does not indicate any abnormality or concern.
B: The cervical os is a horizontal slit - This is a normal anatomical variation and does not indicate any abnormality.
D: Stringy, opaque secretions are present - This can be a normal finding depending on the phase of the menstrual cycle and does not necessarily indicate an abnormality.
A patient with severe infectious disease is being treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics. Which of the following diuretic should be avoided for this patient because of the serious side effect shared by both drugs?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Aminoglycoside antibiotics can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, also has the potential to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Therefore, combining aminoglycosides with furosemide can increase the risk of these serious side effects.
B: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.
C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not have the same side effects as aminoglycosides.
D: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic and does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.