Nokea
At ovulation, the basal body temperature usually:
- A. Rises abruptly and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts.
- B. Falls and remains low for the last half of the cycle.
- C. Is higher during the first half of the cycle than in the last half.
- D. Falls just before ovulation and is higher during the last half.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Basal body temperature usually rises abruptly at ovulation and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts. This rise indicates the release of an egg and the shift from the follicular phase to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
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A nurse is providing care to a client in labor. A pelvic exam reveals a vertex presentation with the presenting part tilted toward the left side of the mother's pelvis and directed toward the anterior portion of the pelvis. When developing this client's plan of care, which intervention would the nurse include?
- A. implementing measures for a vaginal birth
- B. preparing the client for a cesarean birth
- C. assisting with artificial rupture of the membranes
- D. instituting continuous internal fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fetal presentation and position is left occiput anterior position or LOA, which is the most common and most favorable fetal position for birth. LOA along with right occiput anterior position are optimal positions for vaginal birth. Therefore the nurse should implement measures for a vaginal birth. This fetal presentation is not an indication for cesarean birth. Nor is there need for artificially rupturing the membranes. Continuous internal fetal monitoring would be warranted if the woman or fetus was considered to be high risk.
A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Laboratory results indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is normal. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
- C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
- D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Donor oocytes. Diminished ovarian reserve implies reduced quantity and quality of eggs, making natural conception challenging. Donor oocytes offer a viable option for achieving pregnancy.
B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not be effective if ovarian reserve is significantly diminished.
C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own ovarian follicles, which may not be successful if ovarian reserve is low.
D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer require viable eggs from the patient, which may be limited in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of
- A. inadequate fructose.
- B. inflammation of the testes.
- C. an infection of the genital tract.
- D. an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large amounts of leukocytes in seminal fluid indicate an infection of the genital tract. Leukocytes are white blood cells that are typically present in response to an infection. In this context, their presence suggests an ongoing inflammatory response to combat the infection. This finding is consistent with an infection in the genital tract, which could be caused by various pathogens. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
Choice A (inadequate fructose) is incorrect because leukocytes are not directly related to fructose levels in the seminal fluid. Choice B (inflammation of the testes) is incorrect as the presence of leukocytes in seminal fluid does not necessarily indicate testicular inflammation. Choice D (obstruction in the vas deferens) is also incorrect as leukocytes are not typically associated with vas deferens obstruction.
Which statement by a gravid client who is a carrier for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disease, indicates that she understands the implications of her status?
- A. If I have a girl
- B. she will be healthy.
- C. None of my children will be at risk of the disease.
- D. If I have a boy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Girls of carriers have a 50% chance of being carriers but are not affected unless the father also contributes the defective gene.
A nurse is discussing fertility preservation options with a patient undergoing cancer treatment. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Cryopreservation of eggs or embryos is an effective option before starting treatment.
- B. Fertility preservation is only possible after cancer treatment is completed.
- C. Fertility preservation guarantees future pregnancy success.
- D. Only sperm banking is available as a preservation method.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cryopreservation of eggs or embryos is an effective option before starting treatment. This is because fertility preservation should ideally be done before cancer treatment to maximize the chances of success. Freezing eggs or embryos before treatment can help preserve fertility potential.
B: Fertility preservation after cancer treatment may not be as successful due to the potential damage caused by the treatment.
C: Fertility preservation does not guarantee future pregnancy success as it depends on various factors including the patient's age and overall health.
D: Sperm banking is not the only available preservation method. Egg or embryo cryopreservation is also an option for female patients.