Nokea
Changes in blood lipids often occur in people who have been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. Question: Which of the following abnormalities is most consistent with metabolic syndrome?
- A. Increased triglyceride with decreased LDL cholesterol
- B. Increased triglyceride with increased LDL cholesterol
- C. Increased triglyceride with decreased HDL cholesterol
- D. Decreased triglyceride with increased HDL cholesterol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic syndrome's lipid mark triglycerides up, HDL down fits the frame, not LDL swings or triglyceride drops. Nurses clock this, a chronic fat flag.
You may also like to solve these questions
With regards to adverse effects of first-line antihypertensive medications, angioedema has been associated with which ONE of the following classes of antihypertensives?
- A. Angiotensin receptor blockers
- B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
- C. Calcium channel blockers (dihydropyridine)
- D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angioedema, a potentially life-threatening swelling of deep skin layers or mucous membranes, is a well-documented adverse effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, occurring in about 0.1-0.7% of patients due to bradykinin accumulation from enzyme inhibition. This distinguishes ACE inhibitors from other first-line antihypertensives. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) rarely cause angioedema, as they don't affect bradykinin levels. Calcium channel blockers (e.g., dihydropyridines like amlodipine) may cause peripheral edema but not angioedema. Thiazide diuretics are linked to electrolyte imbalances or rashes, not angioedema. Family physicians must recognize this ACE inhibitor risk, ensuring prompt discontinuation and airway management if it occurs, critical for safe chronic disease management.
Which of the following characteristics is true related to chronic illness?
- A. Abrupt onset
- B. Usually single cause
- C. Short latency period
- D. Noninfectious origin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic illness creeps noninfectious, multi-risk, long-brewing, lingering a nurse's map apart from acute's quick, single, catchy hits. It's a slow burn, not a spark, a health system staple.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client and family education?
- A. Resume normal activity
- B. Wear support hose while awake
- C. Decrease fluid intake to no more than 1 liter per day
- D. Diet high in vitamin K intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polycythemia vera thickens blood, slowing venous return support hose boost circulation, cutting clot risk, a practical teaching point for clients and families. Normal activity's fine but misses prevention. Less fluid thickens blood further, dangerous here; high vitamin K aids clotting, counterproductive. Nurses push hose use, easing symptoms like swelling, a key strategy in managing this hyperviscous state.
The client is diagnosed with laryngeal cancer and is scheduled for a laryngectomy next week. Which intervention would be priority for the clinic nurse?
- A. Assess the client's ability to swallow
- B. Refer the client to a speech therapist
- C. Order the client's preoperative lab work
- D. Discuss the client's operative unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngectomy severs voice referring to a speech therapist pre-op sets up post-surgical communication, a priority as clients lose speech, facing isolation without aids like electrolarynx training. Swallowing matters, but airway and cancer trump function now. Labs are routine, delegated often; unit talk's secondary. Nurses push this referral, easing the mute transition, a proactive step in laryngeal cancer's life-altering prep, ensuring clients adapt to this voiceless future from day one.
According to the theory of planned behaviour, what is the best predictor of behaviour?
- A. Attitude
- B. Habit
- C. Intention
- D. Social norm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Planned behaviour intention rules, not just liking, routine, or peer push. Nurses bet on this, a chronic action cue.