Nokea
Chemical digestion of starch foods begins in the:
- A. mouth
- B. stomach
- C. small intestine
- D. large intestine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme in saliva, initiates the breakdown of starch into maltose in the mouth. This process marks the beginning of chemical digestion of starch foods. In contrast, the stomach primarily digests proteins, the small intestine further breaks down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, while the large intestine absorbs water and minerals. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the initial site of starch digestion.
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After several days of antibiotic therapy for pneumonia, an older hospitalized patient develops watery diarrheWhich action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the health care provider.
- B. Obtain a stool specimen for analysis.
- C. Teach the patient about hand washing.
- D. Place the patient on contact precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, placing the patient on contact precautions. This is important because the patient has developed watery diarrhea after antibiotic therapy, which could indicate a Clostridium difficile infection. Placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of this highly contagious infection to other patients and healthcare workers. It is the first priority to ensure the safety of others in the healthcare setting.
A: Notifying the health care provider can be done after placing the patient on contact precautions.
B: Obtaining a stool specimen for analysis is important but should be done after initiating contact precautions.
C: Teaching the patient about hand washing is important for infection control but is not the first priority when dealing with a potential infectious disease outbreak.
Contractions that mix material in the small intestine are called
- A. peristalsis.
- B. deglutition.
- C. mass movements
- D. segmental contractions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: segmental contractions. Segmental contractions mix material in the small intestine by contracting and relaxing specific segments of the intestine to mix and move the contents. This process helps with digestion and nutrient absorption.
A: Peristalsis refers to the wave-like muscle contractions that propel food through the digestive system, not mixing.
B: Deglutition is the process of swallowing food, not mixing it in the small intestine.
C: Mass movements are large contractions that move material through the large intestine, not the small intestine where mixing occurs.
After eating, a patient with an inflamed gallbladder experiences pain caused by contraction of the gallbladder. What is the mechanism responsible for this action?
- A. Production of bile by the liver
- B. Production of secretin by the duodenum
- C. Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum
- D. Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fatty acids and amino acids. It stimulates the gallbladder to contract, causing the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. This is directly related to the patient's symptoms of gallbladder pain after eating, as the contraction of the gallbladder is triggered by CCK.
A: Production of bile by the liver is not the mechanism responsible for the gallbladder contraction.
B: Production of secretin by the duodenum is involved in regulating the pH of the duodenum, not gallbladder contraction.
C: Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum is related to stomach acid secretion, not gallbladder contraction.
In summary, the correct answer, D, is directly related to the mechanism responsible for gallbladder pain after eating,
What type of pain does the nurse expect a patient with an ulcer of the posterior portion of the duodenum to experience?
- A. Pain that occurs after not eating all day
- B. Back pain that occurs 2 to 4 hours following meals
- C. Midepigastric pain that is unrelieved with antacids
- D. High epigastric burning that is relieved with food intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Back pain that occurs 2 to 4 hours following meals. This type of pain is characteristic of duodenal ulcers due to increased acid secretion post-meals. Pain occurs when acidic stomach contents enter the duodenum, stimulating pain receptors. Back pain is common as the ulcer is located in the posterior portion of the duodenum. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical pain pattern of a duodenal ulcer. Choice A is more indicative of gastritis, Choice C is suggestive of peptic ulcer disease, and Choice D is more characteristic of gastric ulcers.
A two-week-old boy develops persistent projectile vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. pyloric stenosis
- B. esophageal atresia
- C. annular pancreas
- D. incomplete rotation of the gut
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: pyloric stenosis. In pyloric stenosis, there is hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter muscle, leading to gastric outlet obstruction and projectile vomiting. This typically presents in infants around 2-6 weeks of age. Other choices (B) esophageal atresia presents with difficulty feeding and choking, (C) annular pancreas with duodenal obstruction, and (D) incomplete rotation of the gut with volvulus or obstruction due to malrotation. Pyloric stenosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario based on the age of the infant and the symptom of projectile vomiting.