Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s):
- A. Staphylococci
- B. Streptococci
- C. Gonococci
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci. Staphylococci commonly cause skin and soft tissue infections. Streptococci are not typically treated with cloxacillin. Gonococci are not susceptible to cloxacillin. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it is the only organism listed that is indicated for treatment with cloxacillin.
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A 22-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain is being examined. The nurse suspects endometriosis. Which of the following is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
- A. Pain during menstruation.
- B. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation.
- C. Pain during ovulation.
- D. Heavy bleeding during menstruation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation. This is because endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to inflammation and pain in the pelvic region. The pain typically worsens during menstruation due to the shedding of this tissue, causing irritation and further inflammation.
A: Pain during menstruation is a common symptom, but what distinguishes endometriosis is the worsening of pain during menstruation.
C: Pain during ovulation is not a typical symptom of endometriosis. While some individuals may experience pain during ovulation, it is not the most common symptom.
D: Heavy bleeding during menstruation can occur in endometriosis, but it is not the most common symptom. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation is the hallmark symptom of endometriosis.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurses most appropriate action or response is to:
- A. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him.
- B. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened
- C. reassure the patient that it is normal
- D. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later tim
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: reassure the patient that it is normal. An erection during a genital examination is a normal physiological response and not under the patient's control. By reassuring the patient, the nurse helps alleviate any potential embarrassment or anxiety. Asking for someone else (A) may further embarrass the patient. Continuing as if nothing happened (B) may ignore the patient's emotional well-being. Stopping the examination and leaving (D) without explanation can create confusion and discomfort.
A 35 year old man heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy for the last one year, is positive for TB on Chest x-ray. He was started on standard quadri anti-TB drug. He is rushed to ER complaining of withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is likely to cause this patient’s withdrawal reaction?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Rifampicin
- C. INH
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to induce cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of methadone and subsequently causing withdrawal symptoms in methadone-maintained patients. Streptomycin (A) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in TB treatment but does not interact with methadone. INH (C) and Pyrazinamide (D) do not have significant interactions with methadone metabolism. Therefore, Rifampicin is the likely cause of this patient's withdrawal symptoms.
While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, when should the nurse notify the physician?
- A. Assessment of sexual habits
- B. Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings
- C. Assessment of allergies to seafood
- D. Assessment of insurance coverage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and recognizing abnormal findings is crucial in post-procedure care for bladder stones. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, urinary retention, bleeding, or other complications that may require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the physician promptly allows for timely treatment and prevents potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate post-procedure care for bladder stones and do not require immediate physician notification.
A patient was treated with digoxin and he develop signs and symptoms of * digoxin toxicity caused by furosemide therapy. What did the diuretic most likely do to precipitate the digoxin toxicityy?
- A. caused by hypocalcemia
- B. caused by hypo natremia
- C. caused by hypokalemia
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: caused by hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss (hypokalemia), which can exacerbate digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels increase the risk of digoxin binding more strongly to cardiac tissue, leading to toxicity symptoms. Hypocalcemia (A) and hyponatremia (B) are not directly related to digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices. Choice D is incorrect as hypokalemia is a known risk factor for digoxin toxicity.