Human Reproductive System

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During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle is quiescent. During the 9th month of gestation the uterine muscle becomes progressively more excitable. What factors contribute to the increase in excitability?

  • A. Placental estrogen synthesis rises to high rates
  • B. Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases
  • C. Uterine blood flow reaches its highest rate
  • D. Prostaglandin E2 synthesis by the placenta decreases
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases. Progesterone maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions. As progesterone levels decline towards the end of pregnancy, the uterine muscle becomes more excitable. Placental estrogen synthesis (Choice A) does not directly affect uterine excitability. Uterine blood flow (Choice C) is not a direct factor in uterine muscle excitability. Prostaglandin E2 (Choice D) actually increases towards the end of pregnancy, contributing to uterine contractions rather than decreasing excitability.

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Approximately how many sperm are normal ejaculated during intercourse.

  • A. 4,000
  • B. 40,000
  • C. 400,000,000
  • D. 4,000,000
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 400,000,000. During ejaculation, a healthy male typically releases around 200-500 million sperm cells. Choice A (4,000) and B (40,000) are too low compared to the average sperm count. Choice D (4,000,000) is also significantly lower than the typical sperm count, making it incorrect. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard range of sperm count during ejaculation.

The result of oogenesis is _____.

  • A. one secondary oocyte
  • B. two secondary oocytes
  • C. one ovum
  • D. four ootids
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: one ovum. During oogenesis, a primary oocyte undergoes meiosis to produce one mature ovum and three polar bodies. The ovum contains the majority of the cytoplasm and organelles needed for fertilization. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: one secondary oocyte - After meiosis I, the primary oocyte develops into one secondary oocyte and one polar body.
B: two secondary oocytes - This is not a possible outcome of oogenesis as only one secondary oocyte is produced.
D: four ootids - Ootids are the immediate products of meiosis II in oogenesis and are not the final mature gametes like the ovum.

The _____ is the space between the labia minor.

  • A. vulva
  • B. vestibule
  • C. vaginal orifice
  • D. pudendal cleft
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: vestibule. The vestibule is the space between the labia minora, housing the openings of the urethra and vagina. It is a specific anatomical term that describes this precise area. The other choices, A: vulva refers to the external female genitalia as a whole, C: vaginal orifice specifically denotes the opening of the vagina, and D: pudendal cleft is a term not commonly used in anatomy to describe this specific space. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the anatomical structure in question.

When sexual feelings occur, it is important to

  • A. consciously choose to act responsibly
  • B. go to a quiet place and talk about what you are feeling with your partner
  • C. explore the feelings and do what feels best
  • D. see a doctor
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it emphasizes the importance of consciously choosing to act responsibly when sexual feelings arise. This involves considering the consequences, respecting boundaries, and making informed decisions. Going to a quiet place to talk (B) may not address responsible actions. Exploring feelings and doing what feels best (C) may lead to impulsive or harmful choices. Seeing a doctor (D) is not necessary for regular sexual feelings. A conscious and responsible approach promotes healthy relationships and personal well-being.

A client is undergoing sentinel lymph node mapping. A nurse explains that this new technique reduces the likelihood of which

  • A. Lymphedema
  • B. Excessive scarring
  • C. Cellulitis
  • D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node mapping helps reduce the risk of lymphedema by limiting the number of lymph nodes removed.

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