Nokea
During the examination of a full-term newborn male, a finding requiring investigation would be:
- A. Absent testes
- B. Meatus centered at the tip of the penis
- C. Wrinkled scrotum
- D. Penis 2 to 3 cm in length
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absent testes. In a full-term newborn male, the absence of testes is a concerning finding that requires immediate investigation to rule out conditions like undescended testes or any underlying genetic abnormalities. This is crucial for ensuring normal development and future fertility.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Meatus centered at the tip of the penis is a normal finding in a full-term newborn.
C: Wrinkled scrotum is a common and normal variation in newborns and does not typically require immediate investigation.
D: Penis 2 to 3 cm in length is within the expected range for a full-term newborn and is not a cause for concern.
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During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patients foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
- A. Phimosis.
- B. Epispadias.
- C. Urethral strictur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is the condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot retract over the glans. This is a common condition in males and can lead to issues such as difficulty urinating and increased risk of infections. Epispadias (B) is a congenital condition where the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra that can cause difficulty with urination, but it is not related to tight foreskin.
What piece of the patient's medical history supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection?
- A. The patient's wife had a urinary tract infection 1 month ago.
- B. The patient has been followed for prostate disease for 2 years.
- C. The patient had intermittent catheterization 6 months ago.
- D. The patient had a kidney stone removed 1 year ago.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a history of intermittent catheterization increases the risk of urinary tract infections due to potential introduction of bacteria into the urinary system. This directly supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection.
A: The wife's history is irrelevant unless the patient had direct contact or shared personal items with her.
B: Prostate disease does not directly correlate with a urinary tract infection.
D: Kidney stones are not directly related to urinary tract infections unless there was an associated infection during the stone removal.
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher * concentrations?:
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Chloramphenicol
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chloramphenicol. At lower concentrations, Chloramphenicol is primarily bacteriostatic, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. However, at higher concentrations, it can disrupt the bacterial ribosome, leading to bacterial cell death, making it bactericidal. Erythromycin (A) and Tetracycline (B) are primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. Ampicillin (D) interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis but does not exhibit a concentration-dependent shift to bactericidal activity like Chloramphenicol.
Which of the following statements about part of a nephron? antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is incorrect?
- A. renal pelvis
- B. ADH regulates the amount of water
- C. distal tubule reabsorbed by the kidneys
- D. collecting duct
Correct Answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is A: renal pelvis. The renal pelvis is not directly related to the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the nephron. ADH regulates water reabsorption in the collecting duct of the nephron to maintain water balance in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all associated with the function of ADH in the nephron. ADH regulates the amount of water reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct, not the renal pelvis.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which of the following drugs?
- A. Lamivudine and stavudine
- B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
- C. Abacavir and zidovudine
- D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that contains these two drugs, which are commonly used together to treat HIV and AIDS. Lamivudine and zidovudine work synergistically to inhibit viral replication by targeting different stages of the HIV life cycle. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that blocks the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase, while zidovudine is also an NRTI that interferes with viral DNA synthesis. This combination helps reduce the viral load and improve the immune response in patients.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Lamivudine and stavudine - Stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
C: Abacavir and zidovudine - Abacavir is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
D: Abacavir and stavudine