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Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. After a CVA, dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen indicate a risk for aspiration and bowel obstruction. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these issues. Option B provides nutrition intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. Option C helps decompress the stomach. Option D is a medication to help with GI motility. Therefore, the nurse should question option A due to the risk of complications post-CVA.
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Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. Husky voice and complaints of hoarseness.
- B. Warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin.
- C. Visible swelling of the neck, with no pain.
- D. Central-type obesity, with thin extremities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because central-type obesity with thin extremities is a classic characteristic of Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol. This pattern of weight distribution is caused by cortisol's impact on fat metabolism and distribution. A is incorrect because a husky voice and hoarseness are not typical symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. B is incorrect as warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin is not a common finding in Cushing's syndrome. C is incorrect because visible swelling of the neck without pain is not a typical sign of Cushing's syndrome.
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum amylase.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum amylase. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas leading to elevated serum amylase levels. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas, and increased levels indicate pancreatic injury. Monitoring serum amylase helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of pancreatitis.
Choice B: Serum sodium, and Choice D: Serum potassium may be affected in pancreatitis due to fluid shifts, but they are not specific markers for pancreatitis.
Choice C: Serum calcium may also be affected in pancreatitis, but monitoring serum calcium is not as crucial as monitoring serum amylase for diagnosing and managing acute pancreatitis.
What should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed ceftriaxone for bacterial pneumonia?
- A. Take the medication as prescribed.
- B. Expect urine color changes.
- C. Complete the full course of the antibiotic.
- D. Avoid dairy products during treatment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used for bacterial pneumonia. Completing the full course is essential to completely eradicate the infection and prevent antibiotic resistance. Taking medication as prescribed is a general principle, but not specific to this medication. Urine color changes are not associated with ceftriaxone. Dairy products do not interact with ceftriaxone.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common symptom in COPD. Choice A is incorrect because ipratropium does not have significant anti-inflammatory effects. Choice C is incorrect as ipratropium does not directly suppress cough. Choice D is incorrect as ipratropium does not specifically target respiratory secretions.