Genitourinary System Quizlet

Genitourinary System Quizlet Related

Review Genitourinary System Quizlet related questions and content

For which patient with incontinence would a bladder-training program be an appropriate intervention?

  • A. The patient with functional incontinence due to mental status changes
  • B. The patient with stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support
  • C. The patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions
  • D. The patient with transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: the patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions. Bladder training is an appropriate intervention for this patient because it aims to increase the bladder capacity and decrease the frequency of abnormal contractions. The program involves scheduled voiding and delaying urination to gradually increase the time between bathroom visits. This helps to retrain the bladder muscles and improve control over urination.

A: Functional incontinence due to mental status changes is not typically addressed through bladder training.
B: Stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support is better treated with pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications.
D: Transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities requires environmental modifications and timed toileting, not bladder training.

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An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the:

  • A. Testis. NURSINGT
  • B. COM
  • C. Scrotum.
  • D. Prostat
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prostate. The prostate is an accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs as it produces and secretes fluid that is a component of semen. The testis (A) is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum (C) is the external sac that houses the testes. Choice B does not seem to be a valid option.

The physician documented that the patient has urinary retention. How should the nurse explain this when the nursing student asks what it is?

  • A. Inability to void
  • B. No urine formation
  • C. Large amount of urine output
  • D. Increased incidence of urination
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to void. Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. The nurse should explain to the student that this condition causes difficulty in urination and can lead to discomfort and complications if not addressed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention does not refer to the absence of urine formation, large urine output, or increased urination frequency. It specifically relates to the inability to void urine from the bladder.

During an examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge on his penis. On palpation, the nurse finds a nontender base that feels like a small button between the thumb and fingers. At this point the nurse suspects that this patient has:

  • A. COM
  • B. Genital warts.
  • C. Herpes infection.
  • D. Syphilitic chancr
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Syphilitic chancre. The description of a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge on the penis, along with a nontender base that feels like a small button, is indicative of a primary syphilitic chancre. This lesion is typically painless and can be mistaken for other genital ulcers, but the specific characteristics described point towards syphilis. Genital warts (choice B) present as cauliflower-like growths, herpes infection (choice C) typically causes painful blisters, and chancroid (choice A) is characterized by soft, painful ulcers. Syphilitic chancre is the most likely diagnosis based on the presentation described.

The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *

  • A. Inhibition of viral protease enzyme
  • B. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
  • C. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
  • D. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because:

  • A. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
  • B. It prevents renal excretion of amoxicillin
  • C. It destroy bacteria that are not destroyed by amoxicillin
  • D. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that protects amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamases produced by certain bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not affect renal excretion, directly destroy bacteria, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin.

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