Nokea
While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, when should the nurse notify the physician?
- A. Assessment of sexual habits
- B. Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings
- C. Assessment of allergies to seafood
- D. Assessment of insurance coverage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and recognizing abnormal findings is crucial in post-procedure care for bladder stones. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, urinary retention, bleeding, or other complications that may require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the physician promptly allows for timely treatment and prevents potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate post-procedure care for bladder stones and do not require immediate physician notification.
You may also like to solve these questions
During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
- A. Phimosis.
- B. Epispadias.
- C. Urethral stricture.
- D. Peyronie disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans. This can lead to problems with hygiene and urination. Epispadias (B) is a congenital malformation where the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra, causing difficulty with urination. Peyronie disease (D) is the development of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, leading to curvature during erection. In this case, the fixed and tight foreskin indicates phimosis.
The microscopic functional unit of the kidney Urinary bladder Urethra Putting it all together 19 Explain, in your own words, whether the following substances would normally be expected to be present
- B. Protein
- C. Glucose
- D. Some people may need to undergo kidney dialysis. Explain, in your own words, how this intervention is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. In the urine, the presence of protein can indicate kidney damage or malfunction. Normally, the kidneys filter out waste products, toxins, and excess substances, but proteins are too large to pass through healthy kidney filters. If protein is found in the urine, it suggests a problem with the kidney's filtration system. This can be a sign of conditions like kidney disease or diabetes.
Rationale for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Urinary bladder and urethra are not typically associated with the presence of substances like protein in urine.
C: Glucose in the urine may indicate diabetes or other health issues, but it is not the most common substance to be tested for in routine urinalysis.
D: Kidney dialysis is a treatment for kidney failure, not a substance present in urine.
Mrs. T. also complains of hoarseness, which results from
- A. increased capillary permeability
- B. a secondary respiratory infection
- C. a large thyroid tumor pressing on the larynx
- D. a psychologic illness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hoarseness can be caused by a large thyroid tumor pressing on the larynx, affecting vocal cord function. This physical obstruction directly interferes with the ability of the vocal cords to vibrate properly, leading to hoarseness. Increased capillary permeability (A) would not result in hoarseness. A secondary respiratory infection (B) may cause coughing or throat irritation, but not hoarseness specifically. A psychologic illness (D) would not directly cause hoarseness as it is a physical symptom related to the vocal cords.
How is an intravenous pyelogram performed?
- A. By palpating the suprapubic area.
- B. By percussing the area over the bladder.
- C. By injecting a contrast dye into the vein.
- D. By using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is performed by injecting a contrast dye into the vein. This dye travels through the bloodstream, highlighting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on X-ray images. Palpating the suprapubic area (A) involves feeling for the bladder, but it is not part of an IVP procedure. Percussing the area over the bladder (B) involves tapping to assess for fluid or air, which is not relevant to an IVP. Using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds (D) is not related to the process of an IVP.
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood * test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Ceftriaxone
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Aztreonam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.