Nokea
Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being given the same drug in the future?
- A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
- B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
- C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
- D. Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ofloxacin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and life-threatening skin reaction that can occur with certain medications like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Once a patient experiences this reaction, they should never be given the same drug again to avoid a potentially fatal outcome. The other choices, GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ofloxacin, are adverse reactions that can be managed or treated without completely excluding the drug from future use.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired renal which the nurse should monitor the patient?
- A. Accumulation of wastes
- B. The nurse should facilitate collection of what
- C. Retention of potassium
- D. Depletion of calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because impaired renal function can lead to the accumulation of wastes in the body, causing toxicity. Monitoring this is crucial for the patient's overall health. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the consequences of impaired renal function. Choice C, retention of potassium, is also incorrect as it is a specific outcome of impaired renal function and not the primary focus of monitoring. Choice D, depletion of calcium, is incorrect as impaired renal function is more likely to lead to hypercalcemia rather than hypocalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the accumulation of wastes in a patient with impaired renal function.
For which patient with incontinence would a bladder-training program be an appropriate intervention?
- A. The patient with functional incontinence due to mental status changes
- B. The patient with stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support
- C. The patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions
- D. The patient with transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions. Bladder training is an appropriate intervention for this patient because it aims to increase the bladder capacity and decrease the frequency of abnormal contractions. The program involves scheduled voiding and delaying urination to gradually increase the time between bathroom visits. This helps to retrain the bladder muscles and improve control over urination.
A: Functional incontinence due to mental status changes is not typically addressed through bladder training.
B: Stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support is better treated with pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications.
D: Transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities requires environmental modifications and timed toileting, not bladder training.
What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD?
- A. High serum sodium levels
- B. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine
- C. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea
- D. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stomatitis in CKD patients is often caused by iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake. Iron salts and calcium binders can lead to mucosal irritation in the GI tract, exacerbating stomatitis. Limited fluid intake can cause dehydration, leading to oral mucosal dryness and vulnerability to stomatitis.
A: High serum sodium levels do not directly cause stomatitis in CKD patients.
B: Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine is not a common cause of stomatitis in CKD patients.
C: Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea is more related to hepatic encephalopathy rather than stomatitis in CKD patients.
The nurse and urologist have both been unsuccessful
- A. Assuming a supine position for self-catheterization in catheterizing a patient with a prostatic obstruction and
- B. Using clean technique at home to catheterize a full bladder. What approach does the nurse anticipate
- C. Inserting the catheter 1 to 2 inches into the urethra the physician using to drain the patients bladder?
- D. Self-catheterizing every 2 hours at home
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Rationale:
E is the correct answer because it addresses the need for further assessment and intervention by the healthcare team. The nurse and urologist's unsuccessful attempts indicate a need for a different approach. Options A, B, C, and D do not address the need for additional assessment or intervention. Option A focuses on positioning, B on technique, C on depth of insertion, and D on frequency of self-catheterization. None of these options address the need for a different plan of care. Therefore, E is the correct choice as it prompts the healthcare team to reassess and consider alternative strategies.
Desmopressin reduces urine volume in which of the following condition? *
- A. Central (neurogeni
- B. diabetes insipidus
- C. Renal (nephrogeni
- D. diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Desmopressin reduces urine volume in diabetes insipidus by mimicking the action of vasopressin, which is deficient in this condition. It helps to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output. Central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus are not directly treated with desmopressin as they involve different underlying mechanisms. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.