Nokea
Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are management plans for
- A. Moderate anaemia
- B. Mild anaemia
- C. Severe anaemia
- D. Anaemia prevention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate anaemia. Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are appropriate management plans for moderate anaemia to improve iron levels and overall health. For mild anaemia, dietary changes alone may be sufficient. Severe anaemia often requires more aggressive treatments like blood transfusions. Anaemia prevention focuses on strategies to avoid developing anaemia rather than managing an existing case.
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Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
- A. Immune globulin
- B. Cyclosporine
- C. Prophylactic antibiotics
- D. Systemic corticosteroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used post-bone marrow transplant to prevent graft-versus-host disease. It works by inhibiting T-cell activation and proliferation, reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin (A) is used for passive immunization, not prevention of graft-versus-host reaction. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections post-transplant, not graft-versus-host disease. Systemic corticosteroids (D) may be used to treat graft-versus-host disease but are not the first-line prophylactic medication.
The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?
- A. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists
- B. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
- C. Intravenous vasodilators
- D. Arteriolar dilators
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct:
1. Arteriolar dilators such as sodium nitroprusside are used to manage hypertensive crisis by rapidly reducing blood pressure.
2. Pheochromocytoma surgery can result in catecholamine release, causing severe hypertension.
3. Arteriolar dilators act directly on blood vessels to lower blood pressure quickly.
4. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (A) can worsen hypotension, beta-adrenergic antagonists (B) can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects, and intravenous vasodilators (C) may not act rapidly enough.
How can maternal smoking during pregnancy affect fetal development?
- A. Causes low birth weight
- B. Increases the risk of preterm birth
- C. Affects lung development
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Maternal smoking during pregnancy can affect fetal development in multiple ways. Smoking can cause low birth weight by restricting oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, leading to growth issues. It can also increase the risk of preterm birth due to the harmful chemicals in cigarette smoke. Furthermore, smoking can affect lung development in the fetus, leading to respiratory issues. Therefore, the correct answer is D - All of the above, as maternal smoking can have a comprehensive impact on fetal development, including low birth weight, preterm birth, and lung development issues.
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
- A. Phenobarbitone
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Magnesium sulphate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. In eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is the drug of choice because it helps prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular irritability and blocking peripheral neuromuscular transmission. It also has vasodilatory effects, improving uteroplacental blood flow. Phenobarbitone (A) is not recommended due to its sedative effects. Calcium gluconate (B) is used to treat hyperkalemia, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used for metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia. In summary, magnesium sulphate is preferred for its efficacy in preventing and managing seizures in eclampsia.
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is
- A. < 10%
- B. 25-50%
- C. 50-75%
- D. > 90
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.