Nokea
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption, not excess stomach acid. Premature graying of hair is unrelated. Presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibody and risk of gastric polyps are associated with pernicious anemia, but not hyperchlorhydria. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical symptoms and characteristics of pernicious anemia.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin factor VIII therapy to treat hemophilia A. When administering factor VIII, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the powdered form orally.
- B. Premedicate with aspirin.
- C. Administer it via rapid IV bolus.
- D. Have emergency equipment ready.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because having emergency equipment ready is crucial due to the risk of allergic reactions or complications associated with factor VIII therapy. This includes supplies for managing anaphylaxis or other adverse reactions, such as epinephrine, antihistamines, and airway support. Administering the powdered form orally (A) is incorrect as factor VIII is given intravenously. Premedicating with aspirin (B) is contraindicated as aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Administering it via rapid IV bolus (C) is dangerous as it can lead to adverse effects like hypotension or clotting. Having emergency equipment ready ensures prompt and effective management of any potential complications.
An 18-year old male patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia recently started maintenance therapy and is complaining of increased hip pain. The pain increases during weight-bearing activity; however, it occasionally hurts at night as well. His CBCd is normal. Which of the following risk factors is most commonly associated with this process?
- A. Younger age at diagnosis
- B. Non-White race
- C. Low body-mass index
- D. Dexamethasone exposure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dexamethasone exposure. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid commonly used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. It can cause avascular necrosis of the hip due to its effect on bone metabolism, leading to increased hip pain during weight-bearing activities. This is a known side effect seen more commonly in patients exposed to dexamethasone.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Younger age at diagnosis - Age is not a known risk factor for avascular necrosis in this context.
B: Non-White race - Race is not a known risk factor for avascular necrosis in this context.
C: Low body-mass index - Body mass index is not a known risk factor for avascular necrosis in this context.
Several gene mutations have been associated with juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML), and they may or may not have prognostic implications. A gene expression–based classification system has been found to be an independent predictor of clinical outcome in these patients. What is the disease signature that predicts a poor outcome?
- A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
- B. Acute myeloid leukemia–like
- C. Chronic myeloid leukemia-like
- D. BRAF pathway abnormalities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myeloid leukemia-like. In JMML, a disease signature resembling acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been associated with a poor outcome. This signature includes features such as increased blasts, abnormal karyotypes, and mutations in genes like NRAS and KRAS. AML-like JMML cases often have aggressive disease progression and poorer response to treatment. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (choice A) are not typically used in JMML treatment. Chronic myeloid leukemia-like (choice C) is not associated with a poor outcome in JMML. BRAF pathway abnormalities (choice D) may be present in some cases of JMML but are not the primary disease signature predicting poor outcomes.
A patient is prescribed a transfusion of washed packed red blood cells. What should the nurse realize as being the rationale for the using this type of blood?
- A. Reduces the risk of hypothermia
- B. Cleans the blood cells of impurities
- C. Reduces the risk of a febrile reaction
- D. Removes potential harmful particles from the blood
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduces the risk of a febrile reaction. Washed packed red blood cells are used to remove plasma proteins, white blood cells, and platelets, reducing the risk of febrile reactions caused by leukocytes and cytokines. Choice A is incorrect because washing red blood cells does not impact the risk of hypothermia. Choice B is incorrect as washing does not clean the cells of impurities. Choice D is incorrect as the washing process does not remove harmful particles from the blood.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. Hyperchlorhydria refers to high stomach acid production, not a symptom of pernicious anemia. Premature graying of hair and gastric polyp are potential features of pernicious anemia. Anti intrinsic factor antibody presence in 60% of patients is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia.