Indicate the intravenous anesthetic,which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Thiopental
- C. Midazolam
- D. Ketamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: Thiopental:
1. Thiopental is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate commonly used as an intravenous anesthetic.
2. It has a rapid onset of action and short duration of effect, making it ideal for induction of anesthesia.
3. Its pharmacokinetics allow for quick recovery and minimal residual effects.
4. Fentanyl (choice A) is a synthetic opioid, Midazolam (choice C) is a benzodiazepine, and Ketamine (choice D) is a dissociative anesthetic, not barbiturate.
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Tick the antiandrogen drug:
- A. Flutamide
- B. Aminoglutethimide
- C. Tamoxifen
- D. Testosterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flutamide is the correct answer as it is a known antiandrogen drug used to treat conditions like prostate cancer. It works by blocking the action of androgens in the body. Aminoglutethimide is not an antiandrogen but an aromatase inhibitor. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used in breast cancer treatment. Testosterone is a natural male hormone and not an antiandrogen. Therefore, Flutamide is the correct choice for an antiandrogen drug.
Commercially available analogs of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) are:
- A. Doxercalciferol (Hectoral)
- B. Paricalcitol (Zemplar)
- C. All of the above
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Both Doxercalciferol (Hectoral) and Paricalcitol (Zemplar) are synthetic analogs of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3.
2. Doxercalciferol is converted to calcitriol in the body.
3. Paricalcitol is a selective vitamin D receptor activator.
Summary:
A: Doxercalciferol is correct as it is a synthetic analog of calcitriol.
B: Paricalcitol is correct as it is also a synthetic analog of calcitriol.
C: Correct as both A and B are true.
D: Incorrect as both A and B are commercially available analogs of calcitriol.
A patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/day and digoxin 0.25 mg/day. The nurse plans to monitor the patient for which potential electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, increasing the risk of hypokalemia. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in the presence of hypokalemia. Hypocalcemia (A) is not directly related to these medications. Hyperkalemia (C) and hypermagnesemia (D) are unlikely with hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin use.
Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Hypercaliemia
- B. A decrease in intraocular pressure
- C. Emesis
- D. Muscle pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A decrease in intraocular pressure. Depolarizing blockade, such as with succinylcholine, leads to sustained depolarization of the neuromuscular junction, causing muscle paralysis. This can result in hyperkalemia due to potassium release from muscles, emesis due to stimulation of chemoreceptors, and muscle pain due to fasciculations. Intraocular pressure is not affected by depolarizing blockade. Therefore, a decrease in intraocular pressure is not an effect seen with depolarizing blockade, making choice B the correct answer.
Gemfibrozil (Lopid) increases concentrations of HDL cholesterol more than clofibrate (Atromid-S). This consideration is:
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. All
- D. None
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) is known to be more effective at increasing HDL cholesterol levels compared to clofibrate (Atromid-S). This is supported by clinical studies showing a greater impact on HDL concentrations with gemfibrozil. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the established evidence. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the comparative efficacy between Gemfibrozil and clofibrate in increasing HDL cholesterol levels.
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