Mrs. A., a 50-year-old female, has had symptoms of Cushing syndrome for several years. Mrs. A. states she is 5'5\ tall and weighs 160 lb but the nurse who measured and weighed Mrs. A. states she is only 5' tall. What is the best explanation for this discrepancy?"
- A. Mrs. A. is old and forgetful
- B. Mrs. A. has had previous back surgery
- C. The nurse has measured Mrs. A. incorrectly
- D. Osteoporosis and kyphosis have caused height loss
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Osteoporosis and kyphosis are common in patients with Cushing syndrome, leading to a loss of height.
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Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, and acidosis are:
- A. most apt to be caused by a deficiency of insulin.
- B. characteristic of diabetes insipidus.
- C. the consequences of a hormone-secreting tumor of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
- D. indicative of a deficiency of ADH.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar due to insufficient insulin to regulate glucose levels.
2. Glucosuria is the presence of glucose in urine, indicating excess blood sugar not being reabsorbed.
3. Polyuria is increased urine production due to osmotic diuresis from excess glucose in the urine.
4. Acidosis results from the breakdown of fats in the absence of sufficient glucose utilization.
5. All these symptoms align with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, where insulin deficiency leads to these metabolic disturbances.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to inadequate ADH, not hyperglycemia.
C: Hormone-secreting tumor of beta cells would lead to hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia.
D: ADH deficiency would result in dilute urine and electrolyte imbalances
What is the definition of a gene?
- A. all the DNA in a cell that controls metabolic reactions
- B. a length of DNA that codes for a protein
- C. the nucleus and its chromosomes
- D. all the DNA in a cell that determines the inheritance of sex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a length of DNA that codes for a protein. Genes are specific sequences of DNA that encode instructions for building proteins. This is the fundamental role of genes in the process of protein synthesis. Choice A is incorrect because not all DNA in a cell controls metabolic reactions; some DNA is non-coding. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the entire nucleus and its contents, not just the gene. Choice D is incorrect as genes do not solely determine the inheritance of sex; they also code for other traits. In summary, the definition of a gene as a segment of DNA that codes for a protein aligns with the known function and role of genes in genetics and molecular biology.
Factors that inhibit TSH release do not include ________.
- A. growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
- B. rising levels of glucocorticoids
- C. somatostatin
- D. excessively high blood iodine concentrations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: excessively high blood iodine concentrations. High blood iodine levels do not inhibit TSH release; they actually stimulate it. Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH), rising levels of glucocorticoids, and somatostatin are all factors that inhibit TSH release. GHIH inhibits TSH release by acting on the pituitary gland. Glucocorticoids have a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, reducing TSH release. Somatostatin inhibits the release of various hormones, including TSH.
A 10-year-old boy is diagnosed with Attention Deficit/Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity disorder (ADD/ADHD). Which of the following drugs is most likely to prove effective for relieving the boy’s main symptoms?
- A. Dobutamine
- B. Amphetamine
- C. Pancuronium
- D. Prazosin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amphetamine. Amphetamine is a stimulant commonly used to treat symptoms of ADHD as it helps improve focus, impulse control, and hyperactivity. It works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain. Dobutamine (A) is a different type of stimulant used for heart conditions. Pancuronium (C) is a muscle relaxant used during surgery, and Prazosin (D) is an alpha-blocker used for high blood pressure and PTSD nightmares. Therefore, Amphetamine is the most likely drug to be effective for relieving the boy's main symptoms of ADHD.
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
- A. synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
- B. increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
- C. not responding to a feedback mechanism
- D. binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the second-messenger mechanism involves the hormone binding to specific receptors on the cell surface, activating G proteins, which then trigger the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) inside the cell. cAMP acts as a secondary messenger to relay the hormone's signal and initiate a cellular response. Synthesizing more hormone than needed (A) is not related to the mechanism. Increasing basal metabolic rate (B) is not a direct result of the second-messenger system. Not responding to feedback (C) contradicts the regulatory nature of hormone actions.