Nokea
Mumps is inflammation of the ______ salivary gland caused by a virus.
- A. buccal
- B. sublingual
- C. submandibular
- D. parotid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: parotid. Mumps is inflammation of the parotid salivary gland. The parotid gland is the largest salivary gland located near the ear. It is commonly affected by the mumps virus, causing swelling and pain.
Rationale:
1. The parotid gland is the main salivary gland affected by the mumps virus.
2. The other choices, buccal, sublingual, and submandibular glands, are not typically associated with mumps.
3. Understanding the anatomical location and function of the salivary glands helps in identifying the correct answer.
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The optimum pH for trypsin and chymotrypsin is about
- A. 1-3.
- B. 5-7.
- C. 7-9.
- D. 10-12.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (7-9) because trypsin and chymotrypsin are proteolytic enzymes that function optimally in slightly basic environments. At pH 7-9, these enzymes maintain their structural integrity and catalytic activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because trypsin and chymotrypsin are not acidic enzymes, so pH ranges 1-3 and 10-12 would denature and inactivate them, while pH 5-7 is still on the acidic side, not optimal for these enzymes.
Functions in the liver include production of:
- A. Digestive enzymes
- B. Secondary bile acids
- C. Stercobilinogen
- D. CCK
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Digestive enzymes. The liver produces bile, which contains bile salts that help digest fats in the small intestine. Additionally, the liver produces various digestive enzymes like lipase, amylase, and proteases. These enzymes aid in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats during the digestion process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because secondary bile acids are produced in the intestine, stercobilinogen is a product of bilirubin breakdown in the intestine, and CCK (cholecystokinin) is a hormone produced by the small intestine to stimulate the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes but not directly produced by the liver.
Concerning deglutition (swallowing):
- A. Pharyngeal phase of swallowing is voluntary.
- B. Normally the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is open.
- C. Dysphagia is caused by a lesion in the swallowing reflex.
- D. In the esophageal stage of swallowing, if the bolus is liquid it travels by peristalsis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various factors such as neurological disorders affecting the swallowing reflex or physical obstructions in the esophagus. This is a key point in understanding the causes of swallowing difficulties.
Choice A is incorrect because the pharyngeal phase of swallowing is actually involuntary, not voluntary. Choice B is incorrect as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is normally closed to prevent acid reflux and only opens during swallowing. Choice D is incorrect because in the esophageal stage of swallowing, both liquid and solid boluses travel through the esophagus by peristalsis, not just liquid boluses.
What treatment for acute cholecystitis will prevent further stimulation of the gallbladder?
- A. NPO with NG suction
- B. Incisional cholecystectomy
- C. Administration of antiemetics
- D. Administration of anticholinergics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: NPO with NG suction. This treatment prevents further stimulation of the gallbladder by resting the digestive system and reducing the secretion of bile. NPO stands for "nothing by mouth," which reduces gallbladder contractions. NG suction removes stomach contents, preventing bile from reaching the gallbladder. Incisional cholecystectomy is a surgical removal of the gallbladder and not a preventive measure. Antiemetics help control nausea and vomiting but do not directly prevent gallbladder stimulation. Anticholinergics inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system but are not typically used to prevent gallbladder stimulation.
Priority Decision: In instituting a bowel training program for a patient with fecal incontinence, what should the nurse first plan to do?
- A. Teach the patient to use a perianal pouch.
- B. Insert a rectal suppository at the same time every morning.
- C. Place the patient on a bedpan 30 minutes before breakfast.
- D. Assist the patient to the bathroom at the time of the patient's normal defecation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because assisting the patient to the bathroom at the time of their normal defecation helps establish a routine for bowel movements, which is crucial in bowel training. This step maximizes the chances of success by utilizing the body's natural cues. Teaching the patient to use a perianal pouch (A) does not address the underlying issue of incontinence. Inserting a rectal suppository (B) may provide temporary relief but does not promote long-term bowel control. Placing the patient on a bedpan (C) at a specific time does not actively involve the patient in the process of bowel training.