Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by:
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperlipidemia
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome disrupts kidney filtration. Proteinuria (choice A) exceeds 3.5 g/day, causing hypoalbuminemia. Edema (choice B) results from low oncotic pressure, fluid shifting to tissues. Hyperlipidemia (choice C) occurs as the liver compensates for protein loss. All (choice D) are hallmarks, correct per definition. Nurses monitor urine protein, manage swelling, and educate on diet, addressing this triad.
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A client has a new diagnosis of hyperlipidemia and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of trans fats.
- B. You should decrease your intake of fiber-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that are high in cholesterol.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client with hyperlipidemia is to avoid foods that are high in cholesterol. Foods high in cholesterol, like those high in saturated and trans fats, can contribute to elevated lipid levels and increase cardiovascular risk. Decreasing intake of these foods can help improve lipid profiles and reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of trans fats, decreasing fiber-rich foods, and increasing intake of high-fat foods can exacerbate hyperlipidemia and worsen the lipid profile.
A client with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of $15 \mathrm{mmHg}$ and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of $90 \mathrm{mmHg}$. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
- A. 65 mmHg
- B. 75 mmHg
- C. 85 mmHg
- D. 95 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CPP = MAP - ICP; 90 - 15 = 75 mmHg (B). Other options (A, C, D) miscalculate. B is correct. Rationale: CPP of 75 mmHg is within normal (60-100), ensuring brain perfusion, per neurocritical care, critical for TBI outcomes.
A client has a new diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a client with nephrotic syndrome, decreasing the intake of high-sodium foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms of the condition. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, swelling, and worsen the condition. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their high-sodium food intake aligns with the dietary management approach to help control nephrotic syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing high-sodium foods would exacerbate fluid retention, avoiding lactose is not specifically required for nephrotic syndrome, and increasing dairy products may not be necessary unless individualized based on the client's needs and lab values.
The nurse manager is conducting an educational session for the nurses on non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers ( $\beta$ blockers). How should the nurse manager accurately describe the mechanism of action of these medications? List the options in order from first to last.
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure are decreased
- B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine actions are blocked
- C. Betaâ‚ and betaâ‚‚ receptor sites are blocked
- D. Cardiac workload and oxygen demand decreases
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers (e.g., propranolol) inhibit the sympathetic nervous system's effects on betaâ‚ (heart) and betaâ‚‚ (lungs, vessels) receptors. The mechanism sequence is: (1) Betaâ‚ and betaâ‚‚ receptor sites are blocked (C), (2) Epinephrine and norepinephrine actions are blocked (B), (3) Heart rate and blood pressure are decreased (A), (4) Cardiac workload and oxygen demand decreases (D). Blocking beta receptors (C) is the initial step, preventing catecholamines (B) from binding, which reduces heart rate and vasoconstriction (A), ultimately lowering myocardial oxygen demand (D). Incorrect sequencing, like starting with heart rate reduction, skips the pharmacological basis. The CSV requires one answer, so C is chosen as the foundational step. Rationale: Beta blockade directly inhibits receptor activation, a primary action taught in pharmacology education, leading to downstream effects critical for conditions like hypertension or angina, ensuring nurses understand the drug's systemic impact.
The nurse notices that the client has a hematocrit of 70 percent. This level of hematocrit will most likely affect the vital signs in which of the following ways?
- A. The blood pressure will be elevated.
- B. The pulse will be low.
- C. Temperature will be elevated.
- D. Blood pressure will be low.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A 70% hematocrit, abnormally high, increases blood viscosity, elevating blood pressure, not lowering pulse or raising temperature. Nurses monitor this for circulatory strain.