Non verbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, which of the following is NOT an indicator of this
- A. Eye contact
- B. Grunts and groans
- C. Words representing an object
- D. Bochy language
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonverbal communication consists of gestures, facial expressions, body language, posture, tone of voice, touch, and eye contact, among other behaviors. Option C, words representing an object, refers to verbal communication rather than nonverbal communication. Nonverbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, providing additional layers of meaning and adding context to the spoken words. Therefore, words representing an object are not indicators of nonverbal communication.
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Patient Hydee asks how she could Distinguish between true and false labor? Which is NOT included among the factors in which the nurse should base her answer from?
- A. Contractions
- B. Cervical by vaginal examination
- C. Vital signs
- D. Engagement of fetus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The engagement of the fetus refers to the baby's head moving down into the mother's pelvis in preparation for birth. This factor is not typically used to distinguish between true and false labor because it is a sign of progress in labor rather than a defining characteristic of true labor. In contrast, the factors that are commonly used to differentiate between true and false labor include contractions (e.g., regularity, intensity, duration), cervical changes observed through vaginal examination (e.g., effacement and dilation), and monitoring vital signs.
When a patient has pneumothorax, the nurse's assessment findings will likely reveal _______. I. absent breadth sounds on the affected side II. Decreased chest expansion unilaterally III. Sharp chest pain IV. Burning chest pain
- A. I, II, III
- B. I, II, IV
- C. III & IV
- D. I & II
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pneumothorax is a condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, which can lead to lung collapse. The nurse's assessment findings in a patient with pneumothorax are typically as follows:
As part of the teaching plan, Nurse Angie teaches that oral contraceptives contains estrogen. Which of the following is the Action of Estrogen? It inhibits the _______.
- A. GnRH thereby inhibiting FSH and LH productions.
- B. Luteinising Hormone (LH) thereby inhibiting ovulation.
- C. Testosterone production.
- D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) thereby inhibiting maturation of ovum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus by inhibiting the release of GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone). GnRH plays a crucial role in the regulation of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) production from the pituitary gland. By inhibiting the release of GnRH, estrogen ultimately leads to a decrease in FSH and LH levels. This process helps to suppress the maturation of the egg and ovulation, providing contraceptive effects.
A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a maculopapular rash that started on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities. Laboratory tests reveal leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Borrelia burgdorferi
- B. Plasmodium falciparum
- C. Rickettsia rickettsii
- D. Leishmania donovani
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, malaise, maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading to the trunk and extremities, along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, is highly suggestive of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) caused by Rickettsia rickettsii. RMSF is a tick-borne illness transmitted by the American dog tick, Rocky Mountain wood tick, and brown dog tick. The constellation of symptoms described aligns well with the typical presentation of RMSF. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which presents with erythema migrans but does not typically cause leukopenia or thrombocytopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of severe malaria and would present with symptoms such as cyclic fevers, anemia, and jaundice but not the described rash distribution.
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma presents with weakness, bone pain, and recurrent infections. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, and monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
- B. Hodgkin lymphoma
- C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
- D. Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of abnormal monoclonal plasma cells in the bone marrow, which produce a monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis. The clinical presentation of weakness, bone pain, and recurrent infections is typical of multiple myeloma. Anemia can result from bone marrow infiltration by the abnormal plasma cells, hypercalcemia is due to bone destruction and release of calcium, renal insufficiency can result from hypercalcemia and protein deposition in the kidneys, and the monoclonal spike in serum protein electrophoresis indicates the presence of a monoclonal protein. Waldenström macroglobulinemia, Hodgkin lymphoma, and chronic lymphocytic leukemia do not typically present with the classic tetrad of findings seen in multiple myeloma.