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Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
- A. BCG
- B. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
- C. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine
- D. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.
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A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?
- A. No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
- B. Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
- C. No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
- D. No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis. A negative Mantoux test indicates the presence of an immune response to the TB bacteria, as the test measures the body's delayed hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigens. This means the child has been exposed to TB in the past or has been vaccinated, resulting in the development of cell-mediated immunity against TB.
Incorrect choices:
A: No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis - This is incorrect as a negative Mantoux test actually indicates the presence of cell-mediated immunity.
C: No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria - Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity, not antibody response.
D: No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis - Mantoux test does not assess anti-toxic immunity, it specifically measures cell-mediated immunity.
The main function of siderophores in bacteria is:
- A. to enhance antibiotic resistance
- B. to sequester iron from the environment
- C. to form capsules
- D. to perform oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: to sequester iron from the environment. Siderophores are molecules produced by bacteria to chelate and acquire iron, an essential nutrient for their growth and survival. By sequestering iron, bacteria can compete with host cells and other microbes for this vital resource. This enhances their ability to thrive and establish infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because siderophores do not directly enhance antibiotic resistance, form capsules, or perform oxidative phosphorylation. These functions are unrelated to the primary role of siderophores in iron acquisition.
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing peptic ulcers?
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Helicobacter pylori
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.
A wound smear revealed Gram-negative rods producing blue-green pigment. The bacteria had a fruity odor. What is the causative agent?
- A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Proteus mirabilis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of the organism. Additionally, it has a distinct fruity odor due to the production of certain volatile compounds. Escherichia coli (B) does not produce blue-green pigment or have a fruity odor. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) and Proteus mirabilis (D) also do not exhibit these specific characteristics associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
A 35-year-old patient with a severe respiratory infection had sputum that showed Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacteria. What is the likely causative agent?
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Shigella dysenteriae
- C. Campylobacter jejuni
- D. Helicobacter pylori
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacterium is Gram-negative and comma-shaped, commonly causing respiratory infections. Vibrio cholerae (A) causes cholera, not respiratory infections. Shigella dysenteriae (B) causes dysentery, not respiratory infections. Helicobacter pylori (D) is associated with gastric ulcers, not respiratory infections. Therefore, Campylobacter jejuni is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.