Nokea
Prenatal tuberculosis always leads to neonatal tuberculosis. Clinical features of tuberculosis prenatally include anaemia, intrauterine fetal death, and glycosuria.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Partially True
- D. Uncertain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Not all prenatal tuberculosis cases lead to neonatal tuberculosis, and symptoms vary.
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Janice is a 32-year-old female who presents for evaluation of abdominal pain. She has no significant medical or surgical history and denies any history of ulcers, reflux, or gastritis. However, she is now in significant pain and is afraid something is really wrong. She describes what started out as a dull discomfort in the upper part of her stomach a few hours ago but has now become more profound and centered on the right side just under her ribcage. She has not vomited but says she feels nauseous. Physical exam reveals normal vital signs except for a pulse of 117 bpm. She is clearly uncomfortable, and palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness with deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. The AGACNP orders which imaging study to investigate the likely cause?
- A. Abdominal radiographs
- B. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
- C. Right upper quadrant ultrasound
- D. A HIDA scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given Janice's presentation of significant abdominal pain localized to the right upper quadrant with tenderness on deep palpation, the most appropriate initial imaging study to investigate the likely cause is a right upper quadrant ultrasound. This imaging modality is commonly used to evaluate the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and adjacent structures. It can help identify common causes of right upper quadrant pain such as gallstones, cholecystitis, or biliary duct obstruction. The non-invasive nature of ultrasound and its ability to provide real-time imaging make it a valuable tool in the initial assessment of patients with abdominal pain. Depending on the findings of the ultrasound, further imaging studies or interventions may be pursued. Abdominal radiographs may not provide sufficient detail of the biliary system, while a CT scan with contrast or a HIDA scan may be reserved for further evaluation if needed based on the ultrasound findings.
A patient presents with a 2-day history of abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. A surgical abdomen is ruled out, and radiography demonstrates inflammation of the small bowel and colon. Microscopy supports a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni, and the patient is prepared for discharge from the emergency room. Important patient education includes advising her that
- A. The bacteria may be spread for as long as she has diarrhea
- B. The disorder should resolve on its own; recurrence is rare but represents a much more serious condition
- C. She will need to take a 10-day course of antibiotics
- D. There is no readily identified food source of this bacteria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Campylobacter jejuni is a common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis, typically transmitted through contaminated food, water, or contact with infected animals. Patient education regarding Campylobacter jejuni infection should include advising the patient that the bacteria may be spread for as long as she has diarrhea. It is important for the patient to practice good hand hygiene and take precautions to prevent spreading the infection to others. While most cases of Campylobacter infection are self-limiting and resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics, proper hygiene practices help prevent the spread of the bacteria to others.
Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers
- A. A stimulant laxative to relieve bowel contents
- B. Carcinoma of the bowel as a leading diagnosis
- C. Decompression of the colon with rectal tube
- D. Angiography to rule out mesenteric ischemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.
Priority nursing diagnoses for Mrs. Q (Breech presentation):
- A. Risk of uterine rupture, risk of fetal distress, pain
- B. Risk of infection, risk of fetal distress, risk of preterm birth
- C. Risk of hemorrhage, risk of cord prolapse, pain
- D. Risk of fetal malpresentation, impaired maternal coping
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nursing diagnoses include risks of uterine rupture, fetal distress, and pain management.
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patients mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows BP 8854 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93 on a 50 mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes seccm5 Cardiac index 1.3 Lmin Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
- A. Hypovolemic
- B. Cardiogenic
- C. Distributive
- D. Obstructive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with low blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, decreased oxygen saturation, and altered mental status is most consistent with distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by systemic vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs despite normal or high cardiac output. In this case, the low SVR (1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5) and low blood pressure indicate vasodilation. The patient's pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 8 mm Hg is not consistent with cardiogenic shock, where elevated PCWP would be expected. Additionally, there are no signs of obstructive shock, such as a history of pulmonary embolism but rather clinical findings that suggest distributive shock. Hypovolemic shock would typically present with signs of volume depletion and would be less likely in this patient with stable mental status initially.