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Presence of severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is associated with hyperacidity.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.
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An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
- A. Maternal dehydration
- B. Maternal pyrexia >38˚C
- C. Maternal oliguria
- D. Failure of cervix to dilate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
Uterine apoplexy is associated with
- A. Incidental haemorrhage
- B. Placental abruption
- C. Multiple pregnancy
- D. Placenta praevia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
The AGACNP knows that which of the following must be evaluated as a cause of her abdominal pain?
- A. HELLP syndrome
- B. Placental abruption
- C. Spontaneous hepatic rupture
- D. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HELLP syndrome. This must be evaluated as a cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant patient because it is a serious condition characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. These abnormalities can lead to abdominal pain, especially in the right upper quadrant. Placental abruption (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, not specific abdominal pain. Spontaneous hepatic rupture (C) is rare and usually presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. Preterm labor (D) typically presents with regular uterine contractions and lower abdominal discomfort, not specific upper quadrant pain like in HELLP syndrome.
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
- A. Feminizing adrenal tumors are almost always carcinomas
- B. Feminizing adrenal tumors are the most common type of adrenal tumor
- C. Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex
- D. Virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children NURS 6560N Final Exam Answers 2024 NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders.
A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children.
In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
The MOST common type of breech presentation is
- A. Frank breech presentation
- B. Complete breech presentation
- C. Incomplete breech presentation
- D. Footling breech presentation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation.
C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation.
D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet