Nokea
Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:
- A. Polyuria and urgency
- B. Dysuria and oliguria
- C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
- D. Foul-smelling urine and dysuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Prostatic hypertrophy causes an enlarged prostate gland.
2. Enlarged prostate can lead to symptoms like straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
3. These symptoms are due to obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
4. Polyuria, urgency, dysuria, oliguria, and foul-smelling urine are not typical symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy.
Summary:
Choice C is correct because it directly relates to the obstructive symptoms caused by prostatic hypertrophy. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical symptoms of this condition and are therefore incorrect.
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Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: *
- A. Na +K + ATPase
- B. Na +/Cl - transporter
- C. Na +K +/ 2Cl - transporter
- D. Na +H + antiporter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na+K+/2Cl- transporter in the renal tubular cell. This transporter is responsible for reabsorbing sodium, potassium, and chloride ions from the urine back into the bloodstream. By inhibiting this transporter, furosemide prevents the reabsorption of these ions, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes, thereby promoting diuresis. Na+K+ ATPase (A) is not the target of furosemide. Na+/Cl- transporter (B) is not the primary mechanism of action for furosemide. Na+H+ antiporter (D) is not the target of furosemide in the renal tubular cell.
What is the most appropriate intervention for Susan who is eating less protein than prescribed?
- A. Praise her for cutting back even further than instructed on protein
- B. Suggest that if she eats less protein she should increase carbohydrates
- C. Recommend eating the amount of protein prescribed
- D. Refer her to the dietician
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recommend eating the amount of protein prescribed. This is the most appropriate intervention because it aligns with the prescribed dietary requirements for Susan's health. By following the prescribed protein intake, Susan can ensure she is meeting her nutritional needs and promoting optimal health.
Explanation:
1. A (Praise her for cutting back even further than instructed on protein): This choice is incorrect as it encourages behavior that goes against the prescribed dietary recommendation, which could negatively impact Susan's health.
2. B (Suggest that if she eats less protein she should increase carbohydrates): This choice is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inadequate protein intake and may lead to an imbalance in her macronutrient intake.
3. D (Refer her to the dietician): While referring her to a dietician may be beneficial for further guidance, it does not directly address the immediate issue of Susan not consuming the prescribed amount of protein.
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Sodium penicillin
- C. Potassium penicillin
- D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.
Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic
- A. In the urethra nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit.
- B. threatening effect of renal failure for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it correctly identifies the patient's condition as "uremic nephropathy," a common complication of renal failure in diabetic patients. Uremic nephropathy refers to the damage to the kidneys caused by the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to renal failure. This choice accurately describes the patient's primary diagnosis and the reason for admission.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific diagnosis or reason for the patient's admission, only mentioning the threatening effect of renal failure without specifying the underlying cause.
Choice C and D are incomplete and do not provide any information related to the patient's condition, making them incorrect.
Which of the following is a respiratory response to acidosis?
- A. secretion of H+
- B. increase tubule buffer activity
- C. decreased respiratory rate
- D. decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased respiratory rate. Acidosis is a condition where the blood pH is below the normal range, leading to increased levels of carbon dioxide. To compensate, the body increases respiratory rate to eliminate excess CO2 through the lungs. Therefore, in response to acidosis, the respiratory rate decreases.
A: Secretion of H+ is a metabolic response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
B: Increased tubule buffer activity is a renal response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
D: Decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio is a consequence of respiratory diseases but not a direct response to acidosis.