Nokea
Seven days after ovulation, pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) decreases rapidly. What is the cause of this decrease in secretion?
- A. The anterior pituitary gland becomes unresponsive to the stimulatory effect of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
- B. Estrogen from the developing follicles exerts a feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus
- C. The rise in body temperature inhibits hypothalamic release of GnRH
- D. Secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of LH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: After ovulation, the follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
Step 2: The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.
Step 3: Estrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus.
Step 4: This inhibits the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus.
Step 5: Decreased GnRH leads to reduced LH secretion from the pituitary.
Therefore, the correct answer is D because the secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum suppresses the hypothalamic secretion of GnRH, resulting in decreased pituitary LH secretion.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. The anterior pituitary gland's responsiveness to GnRH is not the cause of the decrease in LH secretion.
B: Incorrect. Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.
C: Incorrect. Rise in body temperature does not directly inhibit GnRH secretion
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- A. Trichomonas vaginitis
- B. Candida vaginitis
- C. Bacterial vaginosis
- D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial vaginosis. The key findings in this scenario point towards bacterial vaginosis. The presence of thin gray-white discharge, fishy odor with KOH, pH over 4.5, and clue cells on wet prep are classic for bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginitis (choice A) typically presents with yellow-green frothy discharge and motile trichomonads on microscopy. Candida vaginitis (choice B) is characterized by thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge and budding yeast or pseudohyphae on microscopy. Atrophic vaginitis (choice D) usually occurs in menopausal women due to estrogen deficiency and presents with thin, pale vaginal walls and vaginal dryness. In this case, the absence of these findings makes bacterial vaginosis the most likely diagnosis.
From fertilization to week 8 of proliferative phase of the uterine pregnancy, the conceptus is called (menstrual) cycle? ________.
- A. estrogens
- B. a fetus
- C. progesterones
- D. an embryo
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: an embryo. From fertilization to week 8 of the proliferative phase of uterine pregnancy, the conceptus is referred to as an embryo. This is because during this period, the fertilized egg undergoes rapid cell division and differentiation, leading to the formation of distinct embryonic structures and the beginning of organ development. The term "fetus" is used after the embryonic stage, typically from week 9 onwards. Choices A and C, estrogens and progesterones respectively, are hormones involved in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining pregnancy but are not terms used to describe the developing conceptus itself during this specific timeframe.
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- A. Endomysium
- B. Periosteum
- C. Perimysium
- D. Endosteum
Correct Answer: B
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The nurse will plan to teach a 51-yr-old man who is scheduled for an annual physical examination about a(n)
- A. increased risk for testicular cancer.
- B. possible changes in erectile function.
- C. normal decreases in testosterone level.
- D. prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: normal decreases in testosterone level. At the age of 51, it is important to educate the man about the normal age-related decline in testosterone levels, which can affect various aspects of health. This information will help manage expectations and address potential symptoms. Option A is incorrect as testicular cancer risk typically decreases with age. Option B may be a concern but is not the primary focus of education for a routine physical exam. Option D (PSA testing) is more relevant for prostate health, which is not the main focus of education for a 51-year-old man's annual physical exam.
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- A. Estrogens
- B. Progesterone
- C. Follicl
- D. stimulating hormone (FSH)
Correct Answer: A
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