Nokea
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 125 mL/min
- C. 125 mL/hr
- D. 80 mL/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To determine the correct infusion rate, divide the total volume of fluids (1,000 mL) by the total infusion time (8 hours), resulting in a rate of 125 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the appropriate administration of fluids over the specified time period. Choice A (100 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate based on the given information. Choice B (125 mL/min) is inaccurate because the question specifies the rate in hours, not minutes. Choice D (80 mL/min) is incorrect as it provides the rate in minutes rather than hours, which is the required unit for this scenario.
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When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Iris
- B. Cornea
- C. Optic disc
- D. Conjunctiva
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.
What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
- A. Documents the normal finding
- B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
- C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
- D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.
When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. Urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine but is not assessed as such within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect.
Narrow therapeutic index medications:
- A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
- B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
- C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood.
- D. have limited potency and side effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug. It provides a general indication of the margin of safety of a drug. Choice 1 is incorrect because pharmacokinetics is the process of adsorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. Choice 2 is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs require close monitoring since there is often little difference between the desired drug effect and toxicity. Choice 4 is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs have the potential for severe toxic effects with only slight increases in the dose or slight decreases in elimination.