Nokea
The effect of which of the following toxins DOES NOT MANIFEST with neurological symptoms:
- A. Tetanospasmin
- B. Diphtheria exotoxin
- C. Botulinum exotoxin
- D. Pertussis exotoxin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D: Pertussis exotoxin. Pertussis toxin primarily affects the respiratory system causing whooping cough. It does not directly target the nervous system like the other toxins listed. Tetanospasmin causes muscle spasms, Diphtheria exotoxin affects the heart and nerves, and Botulinum exotoxin causes paralysis by blocking neurotransmitter release. Therefore, Pertussis exotoxin is the only toxin among the options that does not manifest with neurological symptoms.
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The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is:
- A. IgA
- B. IgM
- C. IgG
- D. IgD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.
When doctors of a sanitary and epidemiologic institution examine employees of public catering establishments they often reveal asymptomatic parasitosis, that is when a healthy person is a carrier of cysts that infect other people. What causative agent can parasitize in such a way?
- A. Dysenteric amoeba
- B. Malarial plasmodium
- C. Enteral trichomonad
- D. Dermatotropic leishmania
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysenteric amoeba. This is because dysenteric amoebas can cause asymptomatic parasitosis, where a healthy person carries cysts that can infect others. Dysenteric amoebas are known to infect the intestines and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water.
Choice B, Malarial plasmodium, causes malaria transmitted through mosquitoes. Choice C, Enteral trichomonad, causes diarrhea and is transmitted through contaminated water. Choice D, Dermatotropic leishmania, causes skin lesions and is transmitted through sandfly bites. These choices do not fit the scenario of asymptomatic parasitosis in public catering establishments.
A patient with convulsive contractions of facial muscles was admitted to the infectious disease ward. From a scratch on his lower right extremity analysts isolated bacteria with terminal endospores that gave them drumstick appearance. What bacteria are compliant with given description?
- A. Clostridium tetani
- B. Clostridium botulinum
- C. Clostridium perfringens
- D. Bacillus anthracis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A - Clostridium tetani):
1. The patient has convulsive contractions of facial muscles, indicating tetanus.
2. Isolation of bacteria with terminal endospores that have a drumstick appearance is characteristic of Clostridium tetani.
3. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin causing muscle spasms.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is Clostridium tetani (A).
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not tetanus.
C: Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not tetanus.
D: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not tetanus.
After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine. What drug could cause such changes?
- A. Rifampicin
- B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
- C. Benzylpenicillin potassium salt
- D. Biseptol-480
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.
Peptidoglycan is typically found in the:
- A. cell wall
- B. plasma membrane
- C. nucleus
- D. endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.