Nokea
Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed about uterine cancer?
- A. A Pap test is used to diagnose uterine cancer.
- B. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract.
- C. I used estrogen for 2 years without progesterone. This puts me at risk for developing uterine cancer.
- D. Postmenopausal bleeding could indicate uterine cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a Pap test is used to detect cervical cancer, not uterine cancer.
1. A Pap test screens for cervical cancer by detecting abnormal cells in the cervix.
2. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract, making choice B accurate.
3. Choice C is correct as using estrogen without progesterone can increase uterine cancer risk.
4. Choice D is also accurate as postmenopausal bleeding can be a symptom of uterine cancer.
In summary, the need for further teaching arises from the misconception that a Pap test can diagnose uterine cancer.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
Reduction in congenital rubella is best accomplished by:
- A. Avoiding contact with young children when infections are prevalent
- B. Taking prophylactic antibiotics during the second half of pregnancy
- C. Testing the rubella titer at the first prenatal visit to determine immunity
- D. Immunizing susceptible women at least 28 days before they become pregnant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because immunizing susceptible women at least 28 days before they become pregnant ensures protection against rubella during pregnancy, reducing the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus. This timing allows for the development of immunity before conception.
Avoiding contact with young children (A) does not directly prevent rubella transmission to pregnant women. Taking prophylactic antibiotics during pregnancy (B) is not recommended for rubella prevention. Testing rubella titer at the first prenatal visit (C) only assesses current immunity status but does not actively prevent congenital rubella.
A nurse is teaching a community health class of women and explains that an STI is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women. Which STIs should the nurse identify?
- A. HSV-2
- B. Syphilis
- C. Chlamydia
- D. HPV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chlamydia. Chlamydia is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women due to its ability to cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs. This scarring can result in blocked fallopian tubes, making it difficult for an egg to be fertilized by sperm. HSV-2 (Choice A) is a viral infection that primarily causes genital herpes but is not directly linked to infertility. Syphilis (Choice B) can lead to serious complications but infertility is not a common outcome. HPV (Choice D) is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts and cervical cancer, but it does not typically lead to infertility in women.
Which best describes the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in women?
- A. Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white vaginal discharge
- B. Malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge
- C. Dysuria and thin milky-white vaginal discharge
- D. Condition is asymptomatic in women
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge due to the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. This discharge is a hallmark sign of the infection. Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white discharge are more indicative of bacterial vaginosis or yeast infection.
C: Dysuria and thin milky-white discharge are more suggestive of a urinary tract infection.
D: Trichomoniasis can manifest with symptoms in women such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort.
A client who has been diagnosed with HIV develops an oral candida infection. When teaching the client, which instructions will the health care provider include?
- A. Rinse your mouth often with a commercial mouthwash.
- B. Include plenty of citrus juices in your diet.
- C. Select foods that are soft or pureed.
- D. Include hot soups and beverages with each meal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select foods that are soft or pureed. This is because soft or pureed foods are easier to swallow and less likely to irritate the oral mucosa affected by the candida infection. Rinsing with a commercial mouthwash (choice A) may temporarily relieve symptoms but won't address the root cause. Citrus juices (choice B) can be irritating to the oral mucosa. Hot soups and beverages (choice D) can worsen the discomfort in the mouth. Overall, choosing soft or pureed foods will help alleviate discomfort and promote healing.