Nokea
The gradual rewarming process in the management of hypothermia neonatorum is aimed at
- A. Providing energy
- B. Preventing shock
- C. Providing comfort
- D. Preventing burns
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of hypothermia neonatorum, the gradual rewarming process is aimed at preventing shock. Rapid rewarming can lead to vasodilation, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potentially leading to shock. Gradual rewarming helps the body adjust slowly to prevent this. Providing energy (Choice A) is not the primary goal of rewarming in hypothermia. Providing comfort (Choice C) is important but not the main purpose of the rewarming process. Preventing burns (Choice D) is not directly related to the rewarming process but is important to ensure the safety of the neonate during the rewarming process.
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The term used to describe a situation whereby the fetal lie keeps varying after 36 gestational weeks is
- A. Unstable lie
- B. Compound lie
- C. Multiple lie
- D. Transverse lie
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery.
Summary:
B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first.
C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term.
D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.
Post maturity is a term that is used to describe a pregnancy that is equal to or more than
- A. 40 completed weeks
- B. 38 completed weeks
- C. 41 completed weeks
- D. 42 completed weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (42 completed weeks) because a full-term pregnancy is considered to be around 40 weeks. Post maturity refers to a pregnancy that has exceeded the normal 40-week gestation period. At 42 weeks, the risk of complications such as stillbirth or issues with the placenta increases. Choice A (40 completed weeks) is incorrect because this is considered a full-term pregnancy. Choices B (38 completed weeks) and C (41 completed weeks) are incorrect as they do not meet the criteria for post maturity.
In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is
- A. Epigastric pain
- B. Change in mental status
- C. Fever
- D. Hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Physiologic stress ulcers are often associated with systemic stress response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Fever is an early sign of stress-related ulcers before other symptoms like epigastric pain or hemorrhage manifest. Change in mental status is more indicative of neurological issues rather than stress ulcers. Epigastric pain typically occurs after the ulcer has progressed, and hemorrhage is a severe complication of untreated stress ulcers.
What are the risks of cesarean sections?
- A. Infection
- B. Blood loss
- C. Prolonged recovery
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, and C) are risks associated with cesarean sections. Infection can occur at the incision site, blood loss is a common concern during surgery, and cesarean sections typically have a longer recovery time compared to vaginal delivery. Therefore, all of these risks are potential complications of undergoing a cesarean section. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect individually because they only represent a subset of the risks associated with cesarean sections, while choice D encompasses all potential risks.
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.