Nokea
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of Tuberculosis is:
- A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
- B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
- C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
- D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main reason for using combination therapy in TB treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. Step 1: TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which has a high mutation rate leading to drug resistance. Step 2: With combination therapy, multiple drugs target different aspects of the bacteria's lifecycle, making it harder for resistance to develop. Step 3: This approach ensures that if one drug becomes ineffective due to resistance, others can still be effective. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the issue of resistance, which is a critical concern in TB treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing side effects, increasing antimycobacterial activity, and providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections are not the primary reasons for using combination therapy in TB.
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The nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. Which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation?
- A. Skin on the scrotum is taut.
- B. Left testicle hangs lower than the right testicl
- D. Scrotal skin has yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender on the scrotal skin could indicate a serious issue such as testicular cancer or a benign condition like sebaceous cysts. Further evaluation is necessary to rule out malignancy or infection.
A: Skin on the scrotum being taut is a normal finding.
B: Left testicle hanging lower than the right is a common anatomical variation, not a cause for concern.
C: The absence of information makes it impossible to determine if this finding requires follow-up.
Which of the following drug used in the treatment of filariasis?
- A. Diethylcarbamazine
- B. Albendazole
- C. Levamisole
- D. Piperazine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diethylcarbamazine is the correct answer for treating filariasis because it targets the microfilariae, adult worms, and larvae of filarial parasites. It is specifically designed to kill these parasites and is considered the drug of choice for filariasis treatment. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not effective against filarial parasites and are used for different types of infections or conditions. Albendazole is mainly used for treating intestinal worms, Levamisole is used for parasitic infections in animals, and Piperazine is used for treating pinworm infections. Thus, only Diethylcarbamazine directly targets and eliminates filarial parasites, making it the correct choice for filariasis treatment.
A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign
- A. When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract functioning cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. BPH can cause urinary symptoms.
2. Cystoscopy is a common diagnostic test.
3. Temporary complications include UTI or urinary retention.
4. BPH affects a significant number of nephrons.
5. Choice A aligns with BPH pathophysiology and common complications.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct due to BPH affecting nephrons and causing urinary symptoms leading to temporary complications like UTI. Other choices lack relevance to BPH or its complications.
A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a
- A. The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a urinary catheter inserte
- B. As a result of this new consequent of antibiotic therapy intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing
- C. The need to expect a heavy menstrual period diagnosis in the patients plan of care?
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (E):
1. The prompt mentions a patient with a sacral pressure ulcer.
2. Considering the context, the most relevant issue would be wound care and prevention of pressure ulcers.
3. Option E is the only choice related to wound care and prevention, indicating the correct focus for the nurse.
4. Choices A, B, C, and D are unrelated to the primary concern of managing the sacral pressure ulcer.
5. Therefore, E is the correct answer as it aligns with the patient's immediate care needs.
The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.