Nokea
The mother of an 8-year-old girl has brought her child to the clinic because she is wetting the bed at night. What terminology should the nurse use when documenting this situation?
- A. Ascites
- B. Dysuria
- C. Enuresis
- D. Urgency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct terminology for bedwetting in an 8-year-old is enuresis. Enuresis specifically refers to the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep at an age where bladder control is expected. This term is appropriate for the child's situation as it accurately describes the bedwetting issue. Ascites (A) refers to abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, not related to bedwetting. Dysuria (B) is painful urination, which is not the issue described. Urgency (D) refers to a sudden compelling need to urinate, which is also not relevant to this scenario. Using the correct term, enuresis, will ensure accurate documentation and communication regarding the child's bedwetting issue.
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Which laboratory result is of most concern for a patient with cystitis?
- A. Serum WBC 9000/mm?
- B. Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present
- C. Urine bacteria 100,000 colonies/mL
- D. Serum hematocrit 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine bacteria count of 100,000 colonies/mL indicates a significant bacterial infection, which is concerning for cystitis. This result suggests an active infection in the urinary tract, requiring prompt treatment.
A: Serum WBC of 9000/mm³ is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate an active infection.
B: Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present is also within the normal range and may not be indicative of an acute infection.
D: Serum hematocrit of 36% is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to cystitis.
A 75 year old male with BPH has continues to have urinary symptoms of * prostatic obstruction after trial of alpha blocking drug tamsulosin . Dutasteride is added to his therapy,he is also taking hydrochlorothiazide sildenafil and
- A. Which of the following medication could have an interaction with dutasteride?
- B. Tamsulosin
- C. Testosterone
- D. Seldinal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sildenafil. Dutasteride and sildenafil are both metabolized by the same enzymes in the liver, specifically CYP3A4 and CYP2C9. When taken together, sildenafil can increase the blood levels of dutasteride, leading to a higher risk of side effects. Tamsulosin (choice B) is commonly used in combination with dutasteride for BPH without significant interactions. Testosterone (choice C) is not typically used in BPH treatment and does not interact significantly with dutasteride. Therefore, the potential interaction between dutasteride and sildenafil is the reason why choice D is correct.
Which of the following cephalosporins has in vitro activity against anaerobic * gram negative bacteria such as Bacteroides fragilis?
- A. Cefdinir
- B. Cefuroxime
- C. Cefazolin
- D. Cefepime
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cefepime. Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that has broad-spectrum activity, including against anaerobic gram-negative bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis. Its extended spectrum of activity is due to its increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by many bacteria. Choices A, B, and C (Cefdinir, Cefuroxime, Cefazolin) are not typically effective against anaerobic gram-negative bacteria. Cefdinir is primarily active against respiratory pathogens, Cefuroxime has limited anaerobic coverage, and Cefazolin is more effective against gram-positive bacteria.
An outbreak of influenza A has just been reported in his community and a 45 year old man is exhibiting initial symptoms of influenza A. Which agent would be the most useful to treat him?
- A. Cidofovir
- B. Famciclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amantadine. Amantadine is an antiviral medication that is specifically effective against influenza A virus. It works by blocking the viral ion channel, preventing the virus from entering the host cell. This inhibits viral replication and helps reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
Choice A, Cidofovir, is used to treat certain DNA viruses but is not effective against influenza A. Choice B, Famciclovir, is used to treat herpes viruses, not influenza A. Choice D, Ribavirin, is an antiviral medication used for respiratory syncytial virus and hepatitis C, but not as effective against influenza A. Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Amantadine due to its specific activity against influenza A virus.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
- A. Lamivudine and stavudine
- B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
- C. Abacavir and zidovudine
- D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.