The NP orders a thyroid panel for a patient on amiodarone. The patient tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test is ordered. Which is a correct response?
- A. Amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism.
- B. Amiodarone damages the thyroid gland and can result in inflammation of that gland, causing hyperthyroidism.
- C. Amiodarone is a broad-spectrum drug with many adverse effects. Many different tests need to be done before it is given.
- D. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits in up to 25% of patients.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis, risking hypothyroidism.
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A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- C. Furosemide (Lasix)
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin.
A nurse is preparing to administer Propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Hold propranolol for an apical pulse greater than 100/min.
- B. Administer propranolol to increase the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assist the client when she sits up or stands after taking this medication.
- D. Check for hypokalemia frequently due to the risk for propranolol toxicity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension; assisting with position changes prevents falls.
It is customary to administer systemic corticosteroids early in the morning because:
- A. This prevents early morning bronchospasms
- B. To inhibit adrenocorticotrophic hormone over secretion
- C. To achieve high plasma concentrations throughout the day
- D. To prevent adrenocortex suppression
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morning dosing aligns with cortisol peaks, minimizing adrenal suppression.
Which of the following statement is correct for Amantadine?
- A. Has agonistic action on NDMA type of glutamate receptors
- B. It was developed as antiepileptic drug
- C. Acts as a D2 blocker
- D. Produces livedo reticularis as side effect
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amantadine, an antiviral and antiparkinsonian drug, can cause livedo reticularis (a skin mottling side effect); it blocks NMDA receptors, not agonizes them, and enhances dopamine release, not blocks D2.
Please select a correct statement:
- A. Steroids excreted in maximal amount in evening and night time - between 20-24 h
- B. Steroids maximal excretion is in morning time - between -4-8 h
- C. Steroids maximal secretion is in daytime- between -12-16 h
- D. Steroids decrease sensitivity of vessels and bronchus towards catecholamines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Steroids peak in the morning (4-8 AM) due to circadian rhythm of cortisol secretion.
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