Nokea
Spermatogenesis:
- A. occurs in several stages;
- B. includes stages of meiosis I;
- C. includes stages of meiosis II;
- D. it is stimulated by the FSH;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spermatogenesis is a complex process involving several stages such as mitosis, meiosis, and maturation. It starts with the division of spermatogonia through mitosis, followed by meiosis I and II to form haploid spermatids. These spermatids then undergo maturation to become spermatozoa. Therefore, spermatogenesis occurs in several stages, making choice A the correct answer.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: While spermatogenesis does involve meiosis, it includes both meiosis I and II, not just meiosis I.
C: Spermatogenesis includes both meiosis I and II, not just meiosis II.
D: Spermatogenesis is primarily regulated by hormones such as testosterone and LH, not FSH.
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A drug is given that affects the initial phases of spermatogenesis to aid in a patient’s infertility complaints. How much time would it take for the effects of this drug to be seen?
- A. 4.6 days
- B. 16 days
- C. 22 days
- D. 86 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (86 days) because spermatogenesis is a process that takes around 74 days from the initial division of spermatogonia to the release of mature spermatozoa. The drug affecting the initial phases of spermatogenesis would take at least one full cycle of spermatogenesis to show its effects, which is around 74 days. Therefore, it would take approximately 86 days for the effects of the drug to be seen.
Choice A (4.6 days) is too short for spermatogenesis to complete, so the effects of the drug would not be observable in this time frame. Choice B (16 days) and Choice C (22 days) are also insufficient for a full cycle of spermatogenesis to occur, hence the effects of the drug would not be evident within these durations.
A corpus luteum would be present ________.
- A. prior to ovulation in a female
- B. after ovulation in a female
- C. in the semen of a male
- D. only on the day of ovulation in a female
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, after ovulation in a female. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into a corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to support the uterine lining. Prior to ovulation (choice A) there is a mature follicle, not a corpus luteum. Choice C is incorrect as the corpus luteum is a structure in the female reproductive system, not present in semen. Choice D is incorrect as the corpus luteum persists for about 14 days after ovulation, not just on the day of ovulation.
The medical term expressing suture of the perineum is ________
- A. cervicography
- B. perineorrhaphy
- C. cervicorrhapy
- D. cervicorrhexis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: perineorrhaphy. "Perineorrhaphy" refers to the surgical suturing of the perineum. The term is derived from "perineum" (the area between the anus and the genitalia) and "rrhaphy" (meaning suture).
A: cervicography - This term refers to a diagnostic procedure involving imaging of the cervix, not related to suturing the perineum.
C: cervicorrhapy - This term does not exist in medical terminology and is not related to suturing the perineum.
D: cervicorrhexis - This term refers to the tearing of the cervix, not the suturing of the perineum.
In summary, perineorrhaphy is the correct term as it specifically refers to suturing the perineum, while the other choices are unrelated to this procedure.
A male nurse is teaching a client about the scrotum and the ability of sperm to be effective in fertility. The nurse teaches the client that the sperm is contained in the testes and that its temperature is regulated by which of the following?
- A. Penis and surrounding structures
- B. Bladder tone
- C. Structure of the scrotum
- D. Smooth and skeletal muscles in the scrotum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The scrotum contains smooth and skeletal muscles that help regulate the temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
Your 22 year old female patient is c/o severe burning with urination, fever of 101, and aching all over. She takes oral contraceptives. She reports one new partner within the last month. Palpation of the inguinal nodes reveals bilateral lymphadenopathy. There are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. She is very tender at the introitus. Urine has some WBCs but no RBCs or bacteria. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely?
- A. Genital herpes
- B. Condylomata acuminata
- C. Syphilitic chancre
- D. Epidermoid cyst
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, aching, new sexual partner, bilateral lymphadenopathy, multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva, tenderness at the introitus, and absence of RBCs or bacteria in urine are all consistent with genital herpes. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and presents with painful vesicular lesions in the genital area. The presence of ulcers and lymphadenopathy points towards an infectious etiology. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) presents as genital warts caused by HPV, which typically do not cause ulcers. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) presents as a painless ulcer with a firm base, not multiple ulcers. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) presents as a benign skin lesion, not with the symptoms described.