The nurse is educating a patient about the role of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should be emphasized?
- A. It involves increasing estrogen levels to support ovulation.
- B. It requires progesterone supplementation to maintain uterine lining integrity.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormonal monitoring during treatments.
- D. It helps prevent the LH surge during ovulation induction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase support is crucial in fertility treatments to maintain the uterine lining for potential embryo implantation. Progesterone supplementation is necessary to support this phase, as it ensures a hospitable environment for the embryo. Option A is incorrect because luteal phase support primarily focuses on progesterone, not estrogen. Option C is incorrect as hormonal monitoring is still essential during fertility treatments. Option D is incorrect because luteal phase support does not prevent the LH surge, which is necessary for ovulation.
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What is the primary purpose of cryopreservation in fertility treatments?
- A. To store embryos, eggs, or sperm for future use.
- B. To improve the success rates of natural conception.
- C. To reduce the need for fertility medications.
- D. To eliminate genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cryopreservation allows embryos, eggs, or sperm to be stored for future use, preserving fertility options for patients undergoing fertility treatments. This helps in cases like preserving fertility before undergoing treatments that may affect fertility or for those who wish to postpone childbearing.
Choice B is incorrect because cryopreservation doesn't directly improve natural conception rates. Choice C is incorrect as cryopreservation doesn't reduce the need for fertility medications but rather provides a method to store reproductive materials. Choice D is incorrect as cryopreservation doesn't eliminate genetic abnormalities in embryos; it preserves them for potential future use.
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation is concerned about ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). What should the nurse explain?
- A. OHSS is a mild side effect and rarely requires medical attention.
- B. OHSS can cause severe symptoms like abdominal pain and requires monitoring.
- C. OHSS is only a concern for women over 40.
- D. OHSS cannot occur with modern fertility medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because OHSS can indeed cause severe symptoms like abdominal pain and fluid accumulation in the abdomen or chest, which may require medical attention and monitoring. OHSS is a potential complication of ovarian stimulation, particularly in women undergoing fertility treatments. It is crucial for the nurse to explain the seriousness of OHSS symptoms and the importance of close monitoring to the patient.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because OHSS is not a mild side effect, it can occur in women of all ages, and it can still happen with modern fertility medications. It is important to provide accurate information to the patient to ensure their understanding and safety during the treatment process.
A client is to undergo a postcoital test for infertility. The nurse should include which of the following statements in the client's preprocedure counseling?
- A. You will have the test the day after your menstruation ends.
- B. You will have a dye put into your vein that will show up on x-ray.
- C. You should refrain from having intercourse for the four days immediately prior to the test.
- D. You should experience the same sensations you feel when your doctor does your Pap test.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The postcoital test involves assessing cervical mucus after intercourse, similar to a Pap test.
Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical effacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 7 to 8 minutes, lasting about 40 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in:
- A. latent phase of the first stage.
- B. active phase of the first stage.
- C. pelvic phase of the second stage.
- D. early phase of the third stage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's cervical dilation, effacement, and contraction pattern indicate that she is in the latent phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by cervical dilation of 0 to 3 cm, effacement of 0% to 40%, and contractions every 5 to 10 minutes lasting 30 to 40 seconds. The active phase of the first stage occurs with cervical dilation of 4 to 7 cm, effacement of 40% to 80%, and contractions every 2 to 5 minutes lasting 45 to 60 seconds. The perineal phase of the second stage and early phase of the third stage have different characteristics, making them incorrect choices.
What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.