Nokea
Inhibin is
- A. is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit follicle stimulation hormone from the anterior pituitary.
- B. is secreted by the anterior pituitary to inhibit testosterone secretion.
- C. is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit testosterone secretion
- D. is secreted Leydig cells to inhibit Sertoli cells
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inhibin is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary. This is the correct answer because inhibin acts as a negative feedback mechanism to regulate FSH levels in the body. Sertoli cells are specifically involved in spermatogenesis and play a crucial role in regulating FSH secretion through inhibin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because inhibin does not inhibit testosterone secretion or act on Leydig cells. It specifically targets FSH secretion to regulate the process of spermatogenesis.
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The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube:
- A. opens in the abdominal cavity;
- B. captures the ovule released by the ovary;
- C. displays flared edges;
- D. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube is connected to the uterus through the uterine ostium.
2. This connection allows the passage of the ovum from the Fallopian tube to the uterus for implantation.
3. The uterine ostium serves as the entry point for the ovum to travel from the Fallopian tube to the uterus.
4. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection between the Fallopian tube and the uterus.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not open in the abdominal cavity.
- Choice B is incorrect because the Fallopian tube does not capture the ovule released by the ovary.
- Choice C is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not display flared edges.
- Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection
The external male reproductive organs consist of the penis, testes, and
- A. urethra
- B. prostate
- C. scrotum
- D. seminal vesicle
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin that houses the testes, which are responsible for producing sperm and testosterone. It is considered an external male reproductive organ because it plays a crucial role in maintaining the optimal temperature for sperm production. The penis is also an external male reproductive organ, but it is not part of the scrotum. The urethra is a passage for both urine and semen, and while it is part of the male reproductive system, it is not considered an external reproductive organ. The prostate and seminal vesicle are internal male reproductive organs involved in producing and secreting seminal fluid, making them incorrect choices in this context.
The opening to the uterus:
- A. Vagina
- B. Ovary
- C. Cervix
- D. hypermenorrhoea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cervix. The cervix is the opening to the uterus, allowing passage of sperm into the uterus and menstrual blood out of the uterus. The vagina (A) is the canal leading from the cervix to the outside of the body. The ovary (B) is responsible for producing eggs and hormones but is not the opening to the uterus. Hypermenorrhoea (D) refers to excessive menstrual bleeding and is not related to the opening to the uterus.
The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately ________.
- A. 25-50 days
- B. 64-72 days
- C. 120 days
- D. 1 year
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 120 days. Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production, which involves several stages including mitosis, meiosis, and maturation. It takes around 64 days for the sperm to develop from spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa in the seminiferous tubules. After that, the sperm undergo additional maturation in the epididymis for approximately 12-14 days. Therefore, the entire process of spermatogenesis, from the initial division of spermatogonia to the release of mature sperm, takes approximately 120 days.
Choice A (25-50 days) is too short for the complete process of spermatogenesis. Choice B (64-72 days) only covers the time for sperm development in the seminiferous tubules but does not include the maturation period in the epididymis. Choice D (1 year) is too long for spermatogenesis and does not accurately represent the
The pituitary FSH controls:
- A. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
- B. the estrogen secretion;
- C. ovulation;
- D. the progesterone secretion;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pituitary FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) controls the maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating their growth and development. FSH plays a crucial role in the early stages of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen secretion is primarily regulated by the ovaries, not FSH. Ovulation is mainly triggered by the surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) levels, not FSH. Progesterone secretion is mainly controlled by the corpus luteum, which forms after ovulation, not directly by FSH. Therefore, the correct answer is A as FSH directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.