Immune System ATI Quizlet

Immune System ATI Quizlet Related

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The nurse has contributed to a staff education program on immunity. Which participant response indicates a correct understanding of the type of immunity that protects newborns for the first 3 months of life as a result of maternal transmission of IgG?

  • A. Active natural immunity occurs.
  • B. Passive natural immunity occurs.
  • C. Active artificial immunity occurs.
  • D. Passive artificial immunity occurs.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive natural immunity occurs. This type of immunity is achieved through the transfer of antibodies (IgG) from the mother to the fetus during pregnancy. The antibodies provide protection to the newborn for the first few months of life. It is considered passive because the newborn is not actively producing the antibodies themselves.

A: Active natural immunity occurs when the body produces its antibodies in response to exposure to an antigen. This is not the case for newborns receiving maternal IgG.

C: Active artificial immunity occurs when the body is intentionally exposed to an antigen, such as through vaccination, to stimulate an immune response. This is not relevant to the scenario described.

D: Passive artificial immunity occurs when pre-formed antibodies are transferred to an individual through a medical intervention, such as receiving immune globulin. This is not applicable to the situation of maternal transmission of IgG to newborns.

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How does the secondary (memory) immune response differ from the primary immune response?

  • A. It is mediated by the adaptive immune system rather than the innate immune system
  • B. It is less antigen-specific
  • C. It is slower and weaker
  • D. It is faster and stronger
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the secondary immune response is faster and stronger compared to the primary response. This is due to the presence of memory B and T cells from the primary response that can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure. These memory cells allow for a more rapid and robust immune response, leading to quicker elimination of the pathogen. Choices A and B are incorrect because both primary and secondary responses involve the adaptive immune system and are antigen-specific. Choice C is incorrect as the secondary response is faster and more potent than the primary response.

One principal function of complement is to

  • A. inactivate performs
  • B. mediate the release of histamine
  • C. Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells
  • D. phagocytize antigens
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because complement proteins bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and cause cell lysis, enhancing immune response. Choice A is incorrect as complement does not inactivate performs. Choice B is incorrect as complement does not mediate the release of histamine. Choice D is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of phagocytes, not complement proteins. Therefore, the correct function of complement is to enhance immune response by binding antibodies and causing cell lysis.

Which of the following statements is NOT true

  • A. T cells expressing CD4 exert their function mainly through secretion of cytokines
  • B. CD8 T cells interact with MHC class I molecules on antigen presenting cells
  • C. CD4 T cells can help B cells because B cells express MHC class II molecules and can present antigen to T cells
  • D. CD3 is not necessary for TCR signaling in cytotoxic T cells
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because CD3 is indeed necessary for TCR signaling in cytotoxic T cells. CD3 is a crucial component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, which is responsible for initiating intracellular signaling upon recognition of antigen-MHC complexes. Without CD3, TCR signaling cannot occur, leading to impaired T cell activation and cytotoxic function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they accurately describe the functions and interactions of T cells expressing CD4 and CD8 with antigen presenting cells, as well as the role of CD4 T cells in helping B cells through antigen presentation.

Which is not a PAMP?

  • A. Viral dsRNA
  • B. Peptidoglycan
  • C. ROS
  • D. Flagellin
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ROS (Reactive Oxygen Species) is not a PAMP (Pathogen-Associated Molecular Pattern) because it is not a specific molecular pattern derived from pathogens. PAMPs are recognized by the innate immune system to trigger an immune response. Viral dsRNA, peptidoglycan, and flagellin are all examples of PAMPs as they are specific molecules commonly found in pathogens that can be recognized by pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) on immune cells, leading to activation of the immune response.ROS, on the other hand, are reactive molecules produced by host cells in response to pathogens but are not specific molecular patterns derived from pathogens. Therefore, ROS is not considered a PAMP.

To what is the increase in emerging and untreatable infections attributed (select all that apply)?

  • A. The evolution of new infectious agents
  • B. Use of antibiotics to treat viral infections
  • C. Human population encroachment into wilderness areas
  • D. Transmission of infectious agents from humans to animals
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer includes options A, B, C, and E. The evolution of new infectious agents, inappropriate use of antibiotics, human encroachment into wilderness areas, and an increased number of immunosuppressed individuals contribute significantly to the rise in untreatable infections. Transmission from humans to animals is less relevant compared to zoonotic transmission from animals to humans.

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