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What is the primary goal of discharge planning?
- A. Reducing readmission rates
- B. Improving patient outcomes
- C. Ensuring continuity of care
- D. Ensuring medication adherence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of discharge planning is to ensure continuity of care. This involves coordinating the transition of care from the hospital to the next level of care to prevent gaps in treatment and promote a smooth recovery process. Option A focuses solely on readmission rates, which is not the sole purpose of discharge planning. Option B is a broad goal that is encompassed within ensuring continuity of care. Option D, while important, is just one aspect of the overall goal of ensuring continuity of care. Thus, option C is the correct answer as it encompasses all aspects of discharge planning.
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Most evaluations are based on absolute judgment. This is:
- A. A standard set by an external source.
- B. The manager and staff's perceived notion.
- C. Internal standards.
- D. The manager's personal opinion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Internal standards.
Rationale:
1. Internal standards refer to criteria set by an organization based on its own goals and values.
2. Absolute judgment means evaluations are made against these internal standards.
3. By using internal standards, evaluations are consistent and aligned with organizational objectives.
4. External sources (A) and manager's personal opinion (D) are subjective and may not reflect organizational goals.
5. Manager and staff's perceived notion (B) may vary and lack consistency, unlike internal standards.
Summary:
Internal standards provide a consistent and objective basis for evaluations, ensuring alignment with organizational goals. External sources, personal opinions, and perceived notions lack this consistency and alignment.
1. Which patient action indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about
administration of aspart (NovoLog) insulin?
- A. The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area
- B. The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration.
- C. The patient stores the insulin in the freezer after administering the prescribed dose.
- D. The patient pushes the plunger down while removing the syringe from the injection site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the skin with soap and water before insulin administration helps prevent infection. Proper skin preparation is essential for safe injection practices. Choice A is incorrect because the abdominal area is a recommended site for insulin injection. Choice C is incorrect because insulin should not be stored in the freezer. Choice D is incorrect because pushing the plunger down while removing the syringe could result in incomplete dosing.
Staff are sometimes injured when a patient or visitor becomes agitated. If a staff member reports an injury, the following actions should take place: (EXCEPT)
- A. Notify security.
- B. Complete an incident report.
- C. Notify the nursing supervisor.
- D. Ensure that staff has been examined.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Complete an incident report. This is because completing an incident report is crucial for documenting the details of the injury, initiating an investigation, and implementing preventive measures. Notifying security (A) is important for immediate assistance. Notifying the nursing supervisor (C) ensures appropriate follow-up care. Ensuring staff has been examined (D) is essential for assessing and treating injuries. Completing an incident report is a standard protocol in healthcare settings to ensure proper documentation and accountability.
Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who can diagnose and treat medical conditions independently, under the scope of their licensure. NPs have the authority to prescribe medications, order diagnostic tests, and provide primary care services. This role allows them to manage patient care autonomously, without direct supervision from a physician.
Choice A is incorrect because NPs do not provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician; they work independently. Choice C is incorrect because NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect because while NPs may specialize in specific areas of nursing practice, the defining characteristic of their role is the ability to diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.
Which of the following scenarios would be an example of shared governance on a nursing unit?
- A. Staff nurses delegate activities to CNAs.
- B. Procedure manuals are written by a committee of nurse managers.
- C. Staff nurses and CNAs make their own schedules.
- D. A unit manager seeks advice from her supervisor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because shared governance involves staff nurses and CNAs collaborating in decision-making processes, such as creating schedules. This promotes autonomy, teamwork, and mutual respect. Option A involves delegation, not shared decision-making. Option B shows centralized authority by nurse managers. Option D indicates hierarchical decision-making, not shared governance. In summary, choice C aligns with the principles of shared governance, while the other options do not involve the active involvement of both staff nurses and CNAs in decision-making.