Nokea
The nurse is instructing a client about taking a liquid iron preparation for the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia. What should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Do not take medication with orange juice because it will delay absorption of the iron.
- B. Iron may cause indigestion and should be taken with an antacid such as Mylanta.
- C. Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw.
- D. Discontinue the use of iron if your stool turns black.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption. Expect iron to color stool dark green or black.
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Parents arrive to the clinic with their young child and inform the nurse the child has just been diagnosed with sickle cell disease. The parents ask the nurse how this could have happened and which one of them is the carrier. What is the correct response by the nurse?
- A. Most likely, the father is the carrier of the gene.
- B. The trait is passed down through the mother.
- C. The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent.
- D. It is an acquired, not a hereditary disorder.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disorder. To manifest this disorder, a person must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent, in which case all the hemoglobin is inherently abnormal. If the person inherits only one gene, that person carries the sickle cell trait. The hemoglobin of those who have sickle cell trait is about 40% affected. The other options are incorrect due to these factors.
The nurse provides care for an older adult client, diagnosed with anemia, who has a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 34%. To determine the cause of the client's blood loss, which is the priority nursing action?
- A. Evaluate the client's dietary intake.
- B. Observe the client's stools for blood.
- C. Monitor the client's body temperature.
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure (BP).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If an older adult is anemic, blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) or genitourinary (GU) tracts is suspected. Observing the stool for blood will determine if the source of the client's bleeding is in the GI tract. Iron-deficiency anemia is unusual in older adults because the body does not eliminate excessive iron, thus increasing total body iron stores and necessitating maintenance of hydration. If evaluation of the GI and GU tracts does not reveal a source of bleeding, evaluating the client's diet may be appropriate; however, this is not the priority nursing action. Monitoring the client's body temperature and BP will assist the nurse in determining the source of the client's blood loss, but these are not priority nursing actions.
A client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia comes to the clinic complaining of numbness and tingling in his arms and legs. What do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Loss of vibratory and position senses
- B. Neurologic involvement
- C. Severity of the disease
- D. Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with pernicious anemia, numbness and tingling in the arms and legs and ataxia are the most common signs of neurologic involvement. Some affected clients lose vibratory and position senses. Jaundice, irritability, confusion, and depression are present when the disease is severe. Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients is not indicated by these symptoms.
The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic anemia who is now in hypovolemic shock. What indication does the nurse have that the client is having inadequate renal perfusion?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- C. Jaundice of the sclera
- D. Urine output of 15 mL/hour
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Urine output of less than 30 to 50 mL/hour reflects inadequate renal perfusion. The kidneys must excrete 30 to 50 mL/hour or 500 mL/24 hours to eliminate wastes sufficiently. Hematuria is an indicator of other problems such as hemorrhagic cystitis, trauma to the bladder, etc. It is not an indicator of renal perfusion. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg does not indicate that the client is having a decrease in renal perfusion nor does jaundice. Jaundice is present when the liver starts to fail.
A teenaged client with hemophilia sustains a leg laceration after falling off a skateboard and is brought to the emergency department. The laceration is bleeding profusely even with direct pressure to the site. What does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for administration to control bleeding?
- A. Fresh frozen plasma
- B. A colloid solution such as hetastarch (Hespan)
- C. A crystalloid solution such as lactated Ringer's
- D. Albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Treatment includes transfusion of fresh blood, frozen plasma, factor VIII concentrate, and anti-inhibitor coagulant complex for hemophilia A, factor IX concentrate for hemophilia B, factor XI for hemophilia C, and the application of thrombin or fibrin to the bleeding area. Other measures used to help control bleeding are the administration of fresh frozen plasma, aminocaproic acid that helps to hold a clot in place once it has formed, direct pressure over the bleeding site, and cold compresses or ice packs. Hetastarch, lactated Ringer's, or albumin will not control the bleeding related to hemophilia.