Nokea
The nurse is instructing a group of workers at an industrial plant regarding the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Which information should be included in the presentation?
- A. The same behaviors causing one STD could lead to another.
- B. Once clients have had an STD, they develop immunity to it.
- C. An infection with syphilis protects the client from being infected with HIV.
- D. Herpes simplex 1 is a totally different disease from herpes simplex 2.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Behaviors like unprotected sex increase risk for multiple STDs. STDs do not confer immunity, syphilis increases HIV risk, and HSV-1/HSV-2 are related viruses.
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The occupational health nurse is preparing a class regarding sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) for employees at a manufacturing plant. Which high-risk behavior information should be included in the class information?
- A. Engaging in oral or anal sex decreases the risk of getting an STD.
- B. Using a sterile needle guarantees the client will not get an STD.
- C. The more sexual partners, the greater the chance of developing an STD.
- D. If a condom is used, the client will not get a sexually transmitted disease.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Multiple sexual partners increase STD risk due to greater exposure. Oral/anal sex carries risk, sterile needles prevent bloodborne STDs but not others, and condoms reduce but don’t eliminate risk.
The nurse is caring for a 30-year-old nulliparous client who is complaining of severe dysmenorrhea. Which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client to undergo to determine the diagnosis?
- A. A bimanual vaginal exam.
- B. A pregnancy test.
- C. An exploratory laparoscopy.
- D. An ovarian biopsy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Exploratory laparoscopy is used to diagnose conditions like endometriosis, a common cause of severe dysmenorrhea. Bimanual exam is nonspecific, pregnancy tests rule out ectopic pregnancy, and ovarian biopsy is invasive and unrelated.
The 24-year-old female client presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain on the left side she rates as a '9' on a 1-to-10 scale. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. A computed tomography scan.
- B. A lumbar puncture.
- C. An appendectomy.
- D. A pelvic sonogram.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe left-sided pelvic pain suggests ovarian pathology (e.g., cyst, torsion); a pelvic sonogram is the initial diagnostic tool. CT is less specific, lumbar puncture is irrelevant, and appendectomy is premature.
Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client with a cystocele who is scheduled to have a pessary inserted?
- A. Do you know if you are allergic to latex?'
- B. When did you start having incontinence?'
- C. When was your last bowel movement?'
- D. Are you experiencing any pelvic pressure?'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Latex allergies are critical to assess before pessary insertion, as many pessaries are latex-based, risking anaphylaxis. Incontinence history, bowel movements, and pelvic pressure are relevant but secondary to safety.
If the client is asymptomatic and at low risk for breast cancer, the nurse would be correct in advising her to have a baseline mammogram at what age?
- A. 35
- B. 45
- C. 50
- D. 55
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends that women at average risk for breast cancer begin annual mammograms at age 45, but a baseline mammogram may be considered at age 40-50 depending on guidelines. For low-risk, asymptomatic women, age 50 is often the standard starting point for routine screening.