Nokea
The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of
- A. The nurse reads that the physician assessed the patients deep tendon reflexes. What condition of the urinary/renal system does this assessment address?
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Bladder dysfunction
- D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal calculi. Deep tendon reflex assessment is not directly related to the urinary/renal system. Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort in the urinary tract. The assessment may help identify if the patient is experiencing symptoms related to renal calculi, such as flank pain or hematuria. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically addressed by assessing deep tendon reflexes, unlike renal calculi.
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A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these?
- A. Varicocele.
- B. Epididymitis.
- C. Spermatocele.
- D. Testicular torsion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.
Each kidney contains about a million and stored in the pituitary gland
- A. ADH plays a key role in the homeostatic filtration apparatus called: process called osmoregulation
- B. the distal tubule
- C. the proximal tubule
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH plays a key role in the homeostatic filtration apparatus called the process called osmoregulation. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, regulates water balance by controlling the permeability of the collecting duct in the kidney nephrons. This controls the concentration of urine produced. The other choices, B and C, refer to specific parts of the kidney tubules and are not related to the role of ADH in osmoregulation. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it directly relates to the function of ADH in maintaining water balance within the body.
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which condition?
- A. Candidiasis
- B. Trichomoniasis
- C. Atrophic vaginitis
- D. Bacterial vaginosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The key clues in the question are thick, white, curdlike discharge, intense pruritus, erythematous, and edematous vulva and vagina.
Step 2: These symptoms are classic for candidiasis, a fungal infection caused by Candida species.
Step 3: Candidiasis commonly presents with thick, white discharge, itching, and inflamed vaginal tissues.
Step 4: Trichomoniasis (choice B) typically presents with frothy, greenish-yellow discharge and vaginal itching.
Step 5: Atrophic vaginitis (choice C) is more common in postmenopausal women and presents with thin, watery discharge and vaginal dryness.
Step 6: Bacterial vaginosis (choice D) presents with thin, grayish-white discharge and a fishy odor.
Step 7: Therefore, based on the symptoms described in the question, the correct answer is A: Candidiasis.
Your patient does not seem to be responding to conservative treatment for acute renal failure, and dialysis is being considered. You understand that the main indication for dialysis is
- A. generalized edema
- B. elevated blood pressure
- C. elevated blood calcium
- D. a high and rising level of potassium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a high and rising level of potassium. Dialysis is indicated in acute renal failure when the patient has severe electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Potassium levels must be closely monitored, and if they are high and continue to rise despite conservative treatment, dialysis is necessary to quickly lower the potassium levels. Generalized edema (A) is a symptom of renal failure but is not the main indication for dialysis. Elevated blood pressure (B) and elevated blood calcium (C) are not direct indications for dialysis in the context of acute renal failure.
Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal * reaction?:
- A. Dapsone
- B. Rifampin
- C. Clofazimine
- D. Minocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Clofazimine is the correct answer because it is known to suppress both lepra reaction and reversal reaction in leprosy treatment.
Step 2: Dapsone is mainly used to treat leprosy but does not specifically target lepra reaction.
Step 3: Rifampin is effective against leprosy but does not have a direct impact on lepra reactions.
Step 4: Minocycline can be used in leprosy treatment but does not have the same dual action as clofazimine.