The ovarian follicles are located in the following structures, EXCEPT:
- A. the Fallopian tubes;
- B. the uterus;
- C. the medullar area of the ovary;
- D. the cortical area of the ovary;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, the uterus. Ovarian follicles are structures within the ovaries where oocytes (eggs) develop. The Fallopian tubes, medullar area, and cortical area of the ovary all contain ovarian follicles. The uterus, on the other hand, is not where ovarian follicles are located; it is the organ where a fertilized egg implants and a pregnancy develops. Therefore, the correct answer is B because the uterus is not a structure where ovarian follicles are present.
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Parturition occurs the fetus is the ________. approximately how many days after a
- A. amnion woman's last menstrual cycle ______.
- B. placenta
- C. 180 days
- D. chorionic villi
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: chorionic villi. Parturition occurs when the fetus releases cortisol, which stimulates the production of prostaglandins leading to uterine contractions. Chorionic villi are the fetal tissue that produces cortisol, making it the key factor triggering labor.
A: Amnion is the innermost membrane around the fetus, not directly involved in labor initiation.
B: Placenta plays a role in nutrient exchange but not in triggering labor.
C: 180 days is a set time frame and does not relate to the process of parturition.
The seminal vesicle:
- A. is located above the prostate;
- B. is a pair organ;
- C. is located medially from the deferent ducts;
- D. has endocrine role, generating the seminal fluid;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the seminal vesicle is indeed a pair organ, meaning there are two of them in the male reproductive system. They are located posterior to the urinary bladder and are responsible for producing and secreting a significant portion of the seminal fluid.
Choice A is incorrect because the seminal vesicles are located behind the bladder, not above the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as the seminal vesicles are located laterally, not medially from the deferent ducts. Choice D is incorrect because the seminal vesicle is not an endocrine organ; it has an exocrine function in producing seminal fluid.
Which of the following events does NOT lead to genetic variation?
- A. Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis.
- B. Random fertilization between ovum and sperm.
- C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I.
- D. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis II.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis II does not lead to genetic variation. This is because crossing over occurs during meiosis I, not meiosis II. Meiosis II is when the separated chromatids are pulled apart to form haploid cells. Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis (A) and random fertilization between ovum and sperm (B) both contribute to genetic variation by creating unique combinations of alleles. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I (C) also leads to genetic variation by exchanging genetic material between homologous chromosomes.
Vaginal discharge is one of the clinical manifestations in women with
- A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis
- B. Granuloma inguinale
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Trichomoniasis
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with vaginal discharge. The discharge is typically frothy, yellow-green, and has a strong odor. This distinguishes it from other causes of vaginal discharge.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Vulvovaginal candidiasis - Typically presents with thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge.
B: Granuloma inguinale - Rare bacterial infection causing painless genital ulcers, not associated with vaginal discharge.
C: Gonorrhea - May cause vaginal discharge, but typically associated with other symptoms like pelvic pain and abnormal bleeding.
The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is
- A. during her menstrual period
- B. 2 days before the onset of her menstrual period
- C. 1 week after her menstrual period ends
- D. the day her menstrual period begins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing breast self-examination one week after the menstrual period ends is recommended as the breasts are least likely to be tender or swollen.