Nokea
Which statement is not true regarding breast reconstruction?
- A. It promotes symmetry and preserves body image.
- B. It is always done immediately along with the mastectomy.
- C. It does not change survival rates or interfere with therapies or treatment of recurrent disease.
- D. It is associated with low morbidity and high patient satisfaction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Breast reconstruction is not always done immediately to allow for healing post-mastectomy.
2. Immediate reconstruction may not be suitable for all patients due to various factors.
3. Delayed reconstruction is also a valid option and can be performed at a later time.
4. Therefore, the statement that breast reconstruction is always done immediately along with the mastectomy is not true.
Summary:
A: True - Breast reconstruction aims to promote symmetry and preserve body image.
C: True - Breast reconstruction does not affect survival rates or interfere with treatments.
D: True - Breast reconstruction generally has low morbidity and high patient satisfaction.
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A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
- A. Carbon dioxide laser surgery
- B. Electrocautery
- C. Surgical excision
- D. Podophyllin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
A male client is being seen by a physician at a community clinic regarding a painless ulcer on his penis. The provider will be communicating his diagnosis of syphilis and prescribing treatment. In the primary stage of syphilis, what is the time between infection and development of symptoms?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 21 days
- D. 35 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 21 days. The primary stage of syphilis typically occurs around 21 days after infection when a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, appears at the site of infection. This is due to the multiplication of the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Choice A (7 days) is too short for the development of symptoms. Choice B (10 days) is also too short. Choice D (35 days) is too long for the primary stage of syphilis.
The nurse has completed instructions on ways to improve the client’s symptoms related to her rectocele. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?
- A. Weight loss will decrease pressure on the pelvic floor.
- B. Increasing fiber and water in my diet will help prevent constipation.
- C. Heavy lifting will not affect my rectocele.
- D. Kegel exercises will help with pelvic floor strength.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because heavy lifting can worsen rectocele symptoms by putting strain on the pelvic floor muscles. A is correct because weight loss reduces pressure. B is correct because fiber and water prevent constipation. D is correct because Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor.
Mastectomy is usually recommended for which women?
- A. Those who have not had radiation to the breast
- B. Those who have multiple tumors in the breast in several quadrants
- C. Those with no extensive DCIS
- D. Those with a small tumor compared to breast volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who have multiple tumors in the breast in several quadrants. Mastectomy is usually recommended for patients with multiple tumors in several quadrants to ensure complete removal of all cancerous tissue. This choice is correct because it addresses the need for more extensive surgery to effectively treat the cancer.
A: Those who have not had radiation to the breast - Incorrect, as radiation history is not the sole determinant for recommending mastectomy.
C: Those with no extensive DCIS - Incorrect, as the presence of DCIS alone may not warrant a mastectomy.
D: Those with a small tumor compared to breast volume - Incorrect, as tumor size relative to breast volume is not the primary factor in determining the need for mastectomy in cases of multiple tumors in several quadrants.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.