Nokea
The patient tells his primary nurse 'I get into trouble because I have hair-trigger responses. I shoot from the hip. Lots of times that gets me into a mess.' Which response would be most therapeutic?
- A. Let's look at ways to help you slow it down and think before acting.'
- B. It might help to explore how you came to be that way"“any ideas?'
- C. I'll bet you have some interesting stories to share about overreacting.'
- D. It's good that you're showing readiness and motivation to change.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates empathy and offers a therapeutic approach to help the patient manage their hair-trigger responses. By suggesting ways to slow down and think before acting, the nurse is providing practical strategies for the patient to work on self-regulation and impulse control. This response shows active listening and a commitment to supporting the patient in developing coping mechanisms.
Option B is incorrect as it focuses on exploring the root cause rather than offering immediate support. Option C is incorrect as it may encourage dwelling on past mistakes rather than focusing on problem-solving. Option D is incorrect as it praises the patient without addressing the need for behavior change.
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A homeless individual diagnosed with serious mental illness, anosognosia, and a history of persistent treatment nonadherence is persuaded to come to the day program at a community mental health center. Which intervention should be the teams initial focus?
- A. Teach appropriate health maintenance and prevention practices.
- B. Educate the patient about the importance of treatment adherence.
- C. Help the patient obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop.
- D. Interact regularly and supportively without trying to change the patient.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Building trust through regular, supportive interaction (D) is the initial focus to address nonadherence and anosognosia, forming a foundation for later interventions (A, B, C).
The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia asks, 'I've been told that my husband's illness is probably related to imbalanced brain chemicals. Can you be more specific?' The response based on the dopamine hypothesis is:
- A. An increase in the brain chemical dopamine explains the presence of delusions and hallucinations.'
- B. An increase in the brain chemical dopamine explains the presence of lack of motivation and disordered affect.'
- C. Decreased amounts of the brain chemical dopamine explain the presence of delusions and hallucinations.'
- D. Breakdown of dopamine produces LSD, which in large amounts produces psychosis.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-By-Step Rationale:
1. The dopamine hypothesis states that an increase in dopamine is linked to delusions and hallucinations in schizophrenia.
2. Delusions and hallucinations are common positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
3. Therefore, choice A is correct as it directly aligns with the dopamine hypothesis and the symptoms observed in paranoid schizophrenia.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B. Incorrect because an increase in dopamine is not typically associated with lack of motivation and disordered affect in schizophrenia.
C. Incorrect because decreased amounts of dopamine are not linked to delusions and hallucinations in schizophrenia.
D. Incorrect because the breakdown of dopamine producing LSD and causing psychosis is not supported by the dopamine hypothesis in schizophrenia.
A client who has been diagnosed as having bulimia nervosa is hospitalized for treatment of electrolyte imbalance. Just before lunch is finished, the client leaves the table and walks quickly in the direction of the bathroom. The nurse should say:
- A. No one is allowed to leave the dining room during meals.'
- B. I must accompany you when you go to the bathroom.'
- C. I think I understand your plan, and I cannot permit you to carry it out.'
- D. Wouldn't it be preferable to exercise rather than vomit?'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because accompanying the client to the bathroom is essential to prevent purging behavior associated with bulimia nervosa. By doing so, the nurse can provide support, monitor the client, and intervene if necessary to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it may come across as punitive and restrictive. Choice C is incorrect as it may escalate the situation and lead to confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests an alternative behavior without addressing the immediate concern of potential purging. Accompanying the client to the bathroom is the most appropriate and therapeutic response in this situation.
A victim of partner abuse, parent of one child, describes the partner as someone who is easily frustrated and more likely to be abusive after experiencing an event in which self-esteem is challenged. The most recent episodes of violence were related to feeling 'upset' over a job loss. What type of therapy would provide the greatest help to the victim?
- A. Individual therapy
- B. Group therapy
- C. Couples therapy
- D. Family therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Individual therapy. In this scenario, individual therapy would be most beneficial because it allows the victim to focus on healing and developing coping strategies for dealing with the abuse and rebuilding self-esteem. Addressing the victim's psychological well-being and empowering them to recognize and address the abusive behavior is crucial. Group therapy (B) may not provide the necessary individualized support. Couples therapy (C) could potentially put the victim at further risk of harm. Family therapy (D) may not address the specific dynamics of the abusive relationship.
A patient received maintenance doses of fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) 25 mg IM every 2 weeks for 2 years. The clinic nurse notes the patient is grimacing and seems to be constantly smacking her lips. On the next clinic visit, the patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. The nurse should suspect the presence of ______ and should ______.
- A. agranulocytosis"¦check the patient's complete blood count for changes
- B. tardive dyskinesia"¦administer the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale
- C. Tourette's syndrome"¦consult the patient's physician about a neuro evaluation
- D. anticholinergic effects"¦consult the physician about possible medication changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: The patient is showing signs of abnormal movements like lip smacking, grimacing, and snakelike motions, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia (TD).
Step 2: TD is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, such as fluphenazine decanoate.
Step 3: The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale is a validated tool to assess the severity of TD.
Step 4: Administering the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale will help confirm the diagnosis of TD.
Step 5: Prompt recognition of TD is crucial as it may be irreversible and can worsen over time if not addressed.
Summary:
- A: Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by low white blood cell count, not related to the patient's symptoms.
- C: Tourette's syndrome presents with different symptoms and requires specialized evaluation.
- D: Anticholinergic effects do not typically manifest as the described