Nokea
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Sodium penicillin
- C. Potassium penicillin
- D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.
Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
You may also like to solve these questions
During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the glans, surrounded by erythema. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:
- A. Peyronie disease.
- B. Genital warts.
- C. Genital herpes.
- D. Syphilitic cancer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Genital herpes. Genital herpes presents as clusters of small vesicles on the glans surrounded by erythema. This is a classic presentation of genital herpes infection caused by herpes simplex virus. Peyronie disease (A) is characterized by penile curvature. Genital warts (B) are caused by human papillomavirus and appear as flesh-colored growths. Syphilitic chancre (D) is a painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis, not vesicles. In this case, the presence of vesicles and erythema points towards genital herpes as the most likely diagnosis.
Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for * advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
- A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI)
- B. Three NRTIs
- C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI
- D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its potent antiviral effects. NRTIs inhibit viral replication by interfering with the HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase, while PIs inhibit the enzyme protease, essential for viral maturation. Combining these two classes of drugs provides a strong barrier against HIV resistance. Other choices (B, C, D) are less effective in advanced cases as they do not provide the same level of dual inhibition necessary to combat resistant strains and advanced disease progression.
What manifestation in the patient will indicate the need for restriction of dietary protein in management of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. In APSGN, glomerular inflammation leads to impaired filtration, causing loss of protein in urine. Restricting dietary protein helps reduce proteinuria and slows kidney damage. Hematuria (A) is common but not a direct indication for dietary protein restriction. Hypertension (C) may require dietary sodium restriction. Elevated BUN (D) indicates impaired kidney function, but not a direct indication for protein restriction. In summary, in APSGN, proteinuria is the key manifestation necessitating dietary protein restriction to manage kidney damage.
During a pelvic examination, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix is irregular and hard to the touch. The nurse's next best action would be to:
- A. Perform a Pap smear test to confirm the diagnosis.
- B. Referral to a gynecologist for further examination.
- C. Complete a cervical cancer screening.
- D. Complete an endometrial biopsy to assess for malignancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral to a gynecologist for further examination. This is the best course of action because an irregular and hard cervix can indicate various underlying issues such as cervical dysplasia, fibroids, or cervical stenosis. A gynecologist can conduct a more thorough evaluation including additional tests like colposcopy or ultrasound to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.
A: Performing a Pap smear test may not provide sufficient information about the specific condition causing the irregularity.
C: Completing a cervical cancer screening may not address the immediate concern of the irregular and hard cervix.
D: Completing an endometrial biopsy is not indicated for assessing cervical abnormalities, as it focuses on the endometrium rather than the cervix.
Which of the following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly?:
- A. Streptococcus pyogenes
- B. Meningococcus
- C. Treponema pallidum
- D. Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly due to its ability to acquire resistance genes through plasmid exchange and mutation. This bacterium is commonly found in the gut of humans and animals, leading to frequent exposure to antibiotics. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C are less likely to develop resistance as rapidly as E. coli due to their lower frequency of exposure to antibiotics and differences in genetic makeup. Streptococcus pyogenes is susceptible to penicillin, Meningococcus has shown susceptibility to several antibiotics, and Treponema pallidum has limited exposure to antibiotics due to its unique nature as the causative agent of syphilis.