The primary sex organ in the male is the _____.
- A. penis
- B. testis
- C. scrotum
- D. epididymis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: testis. The testis is the primary male sex organ responsible for producing sperm and testosterone. It is located within the scrotum. The penis (choice A) is the male reproductive organ used for sexual intercourse but is not the primary sex organ. The scrotum (choice C) is the external sac that houses the testes but is not the primary sex organ itself. The epididymis (choice D) is a coiled tube located on the testis where sperm mature and are stored, but it is not the primary sex organ.
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With respect to ejaculation which of the following statements is incorrect.
- A. ejaculation is the result of para-sympathetic stimulation
- B. ejaculation results from the summation of synaptic potentials
- C. during ejaculation semen is expelled by rapid contraction of the urethral smooth muscle
- D. ejaculation results is the discharge of sperm, seminal vesicle and prostatic secretions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ejaculation is primarily controlled by the sympathetic nervous system, not the para-sympathetic system. The sympathetic nervous system triggers the contraction of smooth muscles to allow for ejaculation. Choice B is incorrect because ejaculation is not a result of summation of synaptic potentials, but rather a coordinated response. Choice C is incorrect because semen is expelled by rhythmic contractions of the pelvic floor muscles, not the urethral smooth muscle. Choice D is incorrect because ejaculation involves the discharge of sperm, seminal vesicle, prostatic secretions, and other fluids from the reproductive system.
A nurse identifies a client with an abnormal lab test that screens for prostate cancer. What is the test that the client will receive to screen for prostate cancer?
- A. PAS
- B. APS
- C. PSA
- D. PCA
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) is the standard screening test for prostate cancer.
The day after having a radical prostatectomy, your client has many blood clots in the urinary catheter and states he has frequent bladder spasms. You notice occasional urine leakage around the catheter at the urinary meatus. The client says that his right calf is sore and complains that he feels short of breath. Which action will you take first?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with 50 mL of sterile saline.
- B. Administer oxybutynin (Ditropan) 5 mg orally.
- C. Dorsiflex the foot to check for Homans' sign.
- D. Obtain an oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath and calf soreness suggest a pulmonary embolism; obtaining oxygen saturation is critical.
The process of release of ovum from the ovary is termed as
- A. Dessication
- B. Ovulation
- C. Fenestration
- D. Maturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ovulation. Ovulation is the process of the release of the mature egg (ovum) from the ovary. During ovulation, the egg is released into the fallopian tube where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm. Dessication (A) refers to the process of drying out, Fenestration (C) is the creation of an opening or hole, and Maturation (D) is the process of becoming mature. Therefore, the correct term specifically related to the release of the egg from the ovary is ovulation.
Your 30 year old female patient is c/o bad-smelling vaginal discharge with mild itching for about 3 weeks. Douching did not help. Denies painful urination or intercourse. She noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. There are no lesions on the perineum. No lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination, there is a thin gray-white discharge. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled border (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes the findings?
- A. Trichomonas vaginitis
- B. Candida vaginitis
- C. Bacterial vaginosis
- D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial vaginosis. The key findings in this scenario point towards bacterial vaginosis. The presence of thin gray-white discharge, fishy odor with KOH, pH over 4.5, and clue cells on wet prep are classic for bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginitis (choice A) typically presents with yellow-green frothy discharge and motile trichomonads on microscopy. Candida vaginitis (choice B) is characterized by thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge and budding yeast or pseudohyphae on microscopy. Atrophic vaginitis (choice D) usually occurs in menopausal women due to estrogen deficiency and presents with thin, pale vaginal walls and vaginal dryness. In this case, the absence of these findings makes bacterial vaginosis the most likely diagnosis.