Nokea
The process of capacitation usually occurs in the _____.
- A. vagina
- B. testis
- C. prostate
- D. epididymis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The process of capacitation occurs in the female reproductive tract, specifically in the vagina. Capacitation is essential for sperm to fertilize an egg, where they undergo changes in the female reproductive tract to become more motile and capable of penetrating the egg. The vagina provides the ideal environment for capacitation to take place due to its specific pH, temperature, and components present in the cervical mucus. The other choices (B: testis, C: prostate, D: epididymis) are incorrect as capacitation is a process that occurs in the female reproductive tract, not in the male reproductive organs.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which is true of prostate cancer?
- A. It is commonly lethal.
- B. It is one of the less common forms of cancer.
- C. Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.
- D. Ethnicity is a risk factor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ethnicity is a risk factor for prostate cancer. African American men have a higher risk compared to other ethnicities. This is supported by research and epidemiological studies. Choice A is incorrect as prostate cancer, when detected early, has a high survival rate. Choice B is also incorrect as prostate cancer is one of the most common cancers in men. Choice C is incorrect as having a family history of prostate cancer is a known risk factor.
The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube:
- A. opens in the abdominal cavity;
- B. captures the ovule released by the ovary;
- C. displays flared edges;
- D. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube is connected to the uterus through the uterine ostium.
2. This connection allows the passage of the ovum from the Fallopian tube to the uterus for implantation.
3. The uterine ostium serves as the entry point for the ovum to travel from the Fallopian tube to the uterus.
4. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection between the Fallopian tube and the uterus.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not open in the abdominal cavity.
- Choice B is incorrect because the Fallopian tube does not capture the ovule released by the ovary.
- Choice C is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not display flared edges.
- Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection
A 20-year-old woman is not having menstrual cycles. Her plasma progesterone concentration is found to be minimal. What is the explanation for the low level of progesterone?
- A. LH secretion rate is elevated
- B. LH secretion rate is suppressed
- C. FSH secretion rate is suppressed
- D. No corpus luteum is present
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No corpus luteum is present. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone after ovulation. Without a corpus luteum, progesterone levels will be minimal, leading to a lack of menstrual cycles.
A: If LH secretion rate is elevated, it would lead to increased corpus luteum formation and progesterone production.
B: If LH secretion rate is suppressed, there would be insufficient stimulation for corpus luteum formation and progesterone production.
C: FSH is responsible for follicle development, not progesterone production.
You have obtained these data about a 68-year-old client who is ready for discharge from the ED and has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (Nitro-Stat) 0.4 mg sublingual. Which information about the client has the most immediate implications for client teaching?
- A. The client has benign prostatic hypertrophy and some urinary hesitancy.
- B. The client's father and two brothers all have had myocardial infarctions.
- C. The client uses sildenafil (Viagra) several times weekly for erectile dysfunction.
- D. The client is unable to remember when he first experienced chest pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil and nitroglycerin together can cause severe hypotension; this interaction must be addressed immediately.
A chancre usually appears on the external genitalia in which of the following condition:
- A. Syphilis
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Trichomoniasis
- D. Herpes genitalis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A chancre is a painless ulcer that is characteristic of primary syphilis infection. It usually appears on the external genitalia as a result of Treponema pallidum infection. This is distinct from the other conditions listed: Gonorrhea presents with urethritis and discharge, Trichomoniasis with vaginal discharge and irritation, and Herpes genitalis with painful vesicles or ulcers. Syphilis is the only condition among the choices that typically presents with a chancre on the external genitalia.