The prostate:
- A. is located under the urinary bladder;
- B. is located around the initial segment of the urethra;
- C. is an accessory gland of the male reproductive system;
- D. secretes androgenic hormones;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. The prostate is an accessory gland because it produces and secretes fluid that nourishes and protects sperm.
2. It is not located under the urinary bladder (A) but surrounds the initial segment of the urethra (B).
3. The prostate does not secrete androgenic hormones (D); instead, it secretes prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and enzymes.
4. Thus, the correct answer is C because it accurately describes the function of the prostate as an accessory gland of the male reproductive system.
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Which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Relaxin
- C. LH
- D. FSH
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Progesterone. After ovulation, the corpus luteum forms from the ruptured follicle and secretes progesterone to prepare the uterus for implantation. Progesterone helps maintain the endometrial lining for potential pregnancy. Choice B, Relaxin, is secreted by the corpus luteum, but its main function is to soften the cervix and pubic symphysis. Choices C and D, LH and FSH respectively, are pituitary hormones involved in the menstrual cycle regulation, not directly secreted by the corpus luteum.
Which of the following cells secrete testosterone
- A. spermatocytes
- B. oocytes
- C. anterior pituitary cells
- D. leydig cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Leydig cells are located in the testes and are responsible for secreting testosterone.
2. Testosterone is a male sex hormone crucial for the development of male reproductive tissues.
3. Spermatocytes and oocytes are involved in gamete production, not testosterone secretion.
4. Anterior pituitary cells secrete hormones like FSH and LH, not testosterone.
Summary:
Leydig cells secrete testosterone in the testes, making them the correct choice. Spermatocytes, oocytes, and anterior pituitary cells are not involved in testosterone secretion.
A patient asks when she should make an appointment for her first Pap (Papanicolaou) test to screen for cervical cancer. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
- A. There is no need for Pap tests until after you have become pregnant.
- B. All women should have the first Pap test after reaching menarche.
- C. All women should have the first Pap test after they are 19 years of age.
- D. All women should have the first Pap test when they become sexually active or at age 21.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The first Pap test should be done when a woman becomes sexually active or at age 21, whichever comes first. This is because cervical cancer is associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a sexually transmitted infection. Screening at this stage helps detect any abnormalities early on, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
A: Incorrect. Waiting until after pregnancy is not recommended as early detection is crucial in preventing cervical cancer.
B: Incorrect. The age of menarche is not a reliable indicator for when to start screening for cervical cancer.
C: Incorrect. Waiting until 19 may miss early signs of cervical abnormalities that could lead to cancer.
In summary, choice D is the most appropriate response as it aligns with current screening guidelines and focuses on early detection for optimal outcomes.
Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close is a common developmental defect. Which of the following would likely be present in a 12-month-old infant with patent ductus arteriosus?
- A. Below-normal arterial PO2
- B. Below-normal arterial PCO2
- C. Greater than normal arterial blood pressure
- D. Lower than normal pulmonary arterial pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Below-normal arterial PO2. In a 12-month-old infant with patent ductus arteriosus, there would likely be a left-to-right shunt causing increased blood flow to the lungs, leading to decreased systemic blood flow. This can result in decreased systemic oxygenation and below-normal arterial PO2 levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because patent ductus arteriosus does not directly affect arterial PCO2, arterial blood pressure, or pulmonary arterial pressure in a way that would lead to those specific outcomes at this age.
Which of the following nursing interventions would a nurse perform to avoid maceration from irritating drainage or wound compresses in a client with a breast abscess?
- A. Apply zinc oxide to the surrounding skin.
- B. Use a binder to hold the dressing in place.
- C. Elevate the scrotum to relieve the pain.
- D. Limit alcohol intake to 2 drinks per week.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Zinc oxide protects the skin from moisture and irritation.