Nokea
The result of oogenesis is _____.
- A. one secondary oocyte
- B. two secondary oocytes
- C. one ovum
- D. four ootids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: one ovum. During oogenesis, a primary oocyte undergoes meiosis to produce one mature ovum and three polar bodies. The ovum contains the majority of the cytoplasm and organelles needed for fertilization. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: one secondary oocyte - After meiosis I, the primary oocyte develops into one secondary oocyte and one polar body.
B: two secondary oocytes - This is not a possible outcome of oogenesis as only one secondary oocyte is produced.
D: four ootids - Ootids are the immediate products of meiosis II in oogenesis and are not the final mature gametes like the ovum.
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When palpating the epididymis, the nurse considers which finding to be abnormal?
- A. The epididymis is located on the posterolateral surface of each testis.
- B. The epididymis feels like a tubular, comma-shaped structure.
- C. The epididymis collapses on palpation.
- D. The epididymis has an irregular, nodular surface.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an epididymis with an irregular, nodular surface is abnormal and may indicate a pathology such as epididymitis or a tumor. Step 1: Normal epididymis should feel smooth and firm, not irregular. Step 2: Nodular surface suggests a growth or inflammation. Step 3: Abnormal findings should prompt further evaluation. Incorrect choices: A is correct anatomical location, B describes the normal shape, and C collapsing is not a typical finding.
In teaching a class of adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, a nurse includes which information about the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
- A. HPV is fragile and not easily transmitted.
- B. Wartlike growths in the genital area are a sign of HPV infection.
- C. There is a specific blood test needed to screen for HPV.
- D. Heavy, purulent vaginal discharge is the primary sign of HPV.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wartlike growths in the genital area are a sign of HPV infection. This is because HPV often manifests as genital warts. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancers. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because HPV is not fragile, does not require a specific blood test for screening, and does not typically present with heavy, purulent vaginal discharge.
After a 26-yr-old patient has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse will plan to teach about the
- A. use of hormone therapy (HT).
- B. potential complication of infertility.
- C. irregularities in the menstrual cycle
- D. changes in secondary sex characteristics.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - potential complication of infertility. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, increasing the risk of infertility. Teaching about this potential complication is crucial for the patient's understanding of the long-term consequences of PID. Option A (use of hormone therapy) is not directly related to PID treatment. Option C (irregularities in the menstrual cycle) may occur but is not the primary concern post-PID treatment. Option D (changes in secondary sex characteristics) is not a common complication of PID. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice for teaching post-PID treatment.
PID is an infection of the pelvic organs, excepting the uterus. The nurse's role in caring for a client hospitalized with PID includes which of the following?
- A. The nurse inquires if the client has douched within the last 48 hours
- B. The nurse advises a douche every hour prior to being examined
- C. The nurse avoids administering analgesics
- D. The nurse avoids washing the perineal area
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inquiring about recent douching helps understand potential contributing factors to the infection.
One treatment for erectile dysfunction requires the injection of a substance into the corpora cavernosa of the penis. The injection of which of the following causes an erection?
- A. Norepinephrine
- B. A substance that inhibits formation of nitric oxide
- C. Alprostadil
- D. Angiotensin II
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alprostadil is the correct answer because it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that dilates blood vessels in the corpora cavernosa, promoting blood flow and causing an erection. Norepinephrine (choice A) constricts blood vessels and inhibits erection. A substance that inhibits nitric oxide formation (choice B) is counterproductive as nitric oxide is essential for vasodilation. Angiotensin II (choice D) constricts blood vessels and does not promote erection. Therefore, C is the correct choice for inducing an erection through vasodilation in the corpora cavernosa.