Vitamin D plays an important part in the absorption of calcium by the body. Where is vitamin D activated into a form that promotes calcium absorption?
- A. Small intestine.
- B. Vitamin D is not activated into another form.
- C. Kidneys.
- D. Large intestine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidneys. Vitamin D undergoes two hydroxylation steps for activation - first in the liver and then in the kidneys. The final active form of vitamin D, calcitriol, is produced in the kidneys. Calcitriol promotes the absorption of calcium in the intestines. The small intestine (Choice A) is where calcium is absorbed, but vitamin D is activated in the kidneys. Vitamin D does undergo activation into another form as mentioned above, so choice B is incorrect. The large intestine (Choice D) is primarily involved in water absorption, not vitamin D activation.
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You are writing a care plan for a patient who is taking anticoagulant. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis?
- A. Maintain narcan on standby.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of any patient receiving this drug.
- C. Evaluate patient for PT for 2.5.
- D. Establish safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Establish safety precautions. This is the appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient taking anticoagulants as they are at an increased risk of bleeding. Safety precautions, such as fall prevention measures and educating the patient about signs of bleeding, are crucial to prevent complications.
A: Maintaining narcan on standby is not relevant to anticoagulant therapy as narcan is used to reverse opioid overdose, not to manage bleeding risk associated with anticoagulants.
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but it is not a nursing diagnosis. It is a part of the nursing intervention to ensure appropriate management of anticoagulant therapy.
C: Evaluating the patient for PT (prothrombin time) of 2.5 is a specific laboratory value, not a nursing diagnosis. It is important for monitoring anticoagulant therapy effectiveness.
Summary: Option D is correct as it focuses on patient safety in the context of anticoagulant therapy
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will be going home on cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) prescribed for his acute musculoskeletal pain. The nurse will stress that the patient should avoid what?
- A. Taking antihistamines.
- B. Taking antiemetics.
- C. Taking antibiotics.
- D. Drinking alcohol.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Drinking alcohol. Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant that can cause drowsiness and dizziness. Alcohol can intensify these side effects, leading to impaired coordination and judgment. This can increase the risk of accidents and falls. It is important for the patient to avoid alcohol while taking cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there are no known interactions between cyclobenzaprine and antihistamines, antiemetics, or antibiotics that would pose a significant risk to the patient. It is essential to focus on the potential interactions that can have serious consequences, such as alcohol with cyclobenzaprine.
A patient has symptoms that are characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which diagnostic tests are likely to be ordered to aid in the diagnosis of this patient?
- A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
- B. Serum albumin and a computed tomography (CT) scan.
- C. CSF proteins and an angiography.
- D. Serum anti-acetylcholine antibodies and x-rays.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). CSF analysis can show abnormalities in MS such as elevated white blood cells and protein levels. MRI can reveal characteristic lesions in the brain and spinal cord. B is incorrect as serum albumin and CT scan are not specific for MS. C is incorrect as CSF proteins and angiography are not primary tests for MS. D is incorrect as serum anti-acetylcholine antibodies and x-rays are not typically used in diagnosing MS.
The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who has just begun taking a Thiazide diuretic to treat hypertension. What is an important aspect of care for this patient?
- A. Providing a low potassium diet.
- B. Encouraging increased fluid intake.
- C. Initiating a fall risk protocol.
- D. Increasing exercise and activity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Initiating a fall risk protocol. This is important because Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low sodium and potassium levels, which can increase the risk of falls in elderly patients. Initiating a fall risk protocol involves assessing the patient's risk factors for falls, implementing appropriate safety measures, and monitoring the patient closely to prevent falls. Providing a low potassium diet (choice A) is not necessary as Thiazide diuretics can actually lead to low potassium levels. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice B) is important but not specific to the potential side effects of Thiazide diuretics. Increasing exercise and activity (choice D) is beneficial for overall health but not directly related to the side effects of Thiazide diuretics in this scenario.
A nurse is instructing a pregnant patient concerning the potential risk to her fetus from a pregnancy category B drug. What would the nurse inform the patient?
- A. There is evidence of human fetal risk, but the potential benefits from the use of the drug may be acceptable despite potential risks.
- B. Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women.
- C. Adequate studies in pregnant women have demonstrated that there is no risk to the fetus.
- D. Animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, but there have been no adequate studies in pregnant women.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would inform the patient that animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, but there have been no adequate studies in pregnant women. This is because Pregnancy Category B drugs have shown no adverse effects in animal studies, but there is a lack of human data. Choice A is incorrect as it implies evidence of fetal risk in humans. Choice B is incorrect because it states adverse effects in animal studies without human data. Choice C is incorrect as it claims no risk based on limited studies. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately reflects the classification of Pregnancy Category B drugs.
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