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The patient newly diagnosed with epilepsy asks the nurse to explain the meaning of the diagnosis. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Epilepsy is the clonic-tonic muscle contraction with the potential to cause injury.
- B. Epilepsy is a convulsive disorder caused by electrical discharge in the muscle.
- C. Epilepsy is a single disease.
- D. Epilepsy is characterized by sudden discharge of electrical energy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because epilepsy is defined by sudden discharges of electrical energy in the brain leading to seizures. This explanation is accurate and specific to the condition. Choice A is incorrect because epilepsy encompasses various types of seizures, not just clonic-tonic muscle contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it simplifies epilepsy to being solely convulsive, disregarding non-convulsive seizures. Choice C is incorrect because epilepsy is a spectrum of disorders.
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The nurse evaluates the effects of warfarin by monitoring what lab test?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Activated thromboplastin time (APT).
- C. Red blood count (RBC).
- D. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring PT and INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results. Platelet count (A) assesses clot formation ability, not warfarin effects. APT (B) primarily evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. RBC count (C) measures oxygen-carrying capacity, unrelated to warfarin effects.
The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in the patient?
- A. Gastrointestinal (GI) and lower extremity muscles.
- B. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition.
- C. Respiratory and facial muscles.
- D. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory and facial muscles. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. Symptoms commonly affect muscles involved in breathing (respiratory) and facial expressions, such as difficulty swallowing, breathing, speaking, and facial drooping. Monitoring these systems is crucial as respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory failure. Choice A is incorrect because myasthenia gravis does not typically affect gastrointestinal or lower extremity muscles primarily. Choice B is incorrect as the primary symptoms of myasthenia gravis do not involve the central nervous system but rather the neuromuscular junction. Choice D is incorrect as myasthenia gravis does not directly impact the cardiovascular system or postural muscles.
The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who has just begun taking a Thiazide diuretic to treat hypertension. What is an important aspect of care for this patient?
- A. Providing a low potassium diet.
- B. Encouraging increased fluid intake.
- C. Initiating a fall risk protocol.
- D. Increasing exercise and activity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Initiating a fall risk protocol. This is important because Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low sodium and potassium levels, which can increase the risk of falls in elderly patients. Initiating a fall risk protocol involves assessing the patient's risk factors for falls, implementing appropriate safety measures, and monitoring the patient closely to prevent falls. Providing a low potassium diet (choice A) is not necessary as Thiazide diuretics can actually lead to low potassium levels. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice B) is important but not specific to the potential side effects of Thiazide diuretics. Increasing exercise and activity (choice D) is beneficial for overall health but not directly related to the side effects of Thiazide diuretics in this scenario.
A student asked the pharmacology instructor to describe the function of a cholinergic agonist. What would be the instructor's reply?
- A. Cholinergic agonist decreases the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor sites throughout the body.
- B. Cholinergic agonist decreases the activity of norepinephrine throughout the body.
- C. Cholinergic agonist increases the activity of dopamine receptor sites throughout the brain and spinal cord.
- D. Cholinergic agonist increases the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites throughout the body.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cholinergic agonist increases the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites throughout the body. A cholinergic agonist is a drug that mimics the action of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter that binds to and activates cholinergic receptors. By increasing the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites, a cholinergic agonist enhances cholinergic neurotransmission, leading to various physiological responses.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cholinergic agonists do not affect gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor sites.
B: Cholinergic agonists do not affect norepinephrine activity.
C: Cholinergic agonists do not affect dopamine receptor sites.
In summary, the correct answer is D because cholinergic agonists specifically target and enhance the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to increased cholinergic neurotransmission.
The nurse is caring for a patient that has seizure disorder. The nurse notes that the patient has reddened gums that bleed when oral care is given. The nurse recognizes this finding as:
- A. A sign of poor self-care.
- B. A drug interaction with aspirin.
- C. An adverse effect of the phenytoin.
- D. A symptom of hepatotoxicity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An adverse effect of phenytoin. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug known to cause gingival hyperplasia, leading to reddened and bleeding gums. This is a common side effect of phenytoin due to its effect on gingival tissues. Poor self-care (choice A) may contribute to gingival issues, but in this case, the patient's gums are affected by a medication side effect. There is no indication in the question of aspirin use (choice B) or hepatotoxicity (choice D) causing the gum issues. Therefore, the most likely explanation is the adverse effect of phenytoin.