Nokea
What are the signs of uterine rupture during labor?
- A. Sudden abdominal pain
- B. Loss of fetal heart tones
- C. Vaginal bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Uterine rupture is life-threatening and has multiple warning signs.
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Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers
- A. A stimulant laxative to relieve bowel contents
- B. Carcinoma of the bowel as a leading diagnosis
- C. Decompression of the colon with rectal tube
- D. Angiography to rule out mesenteric ischemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.
Postmaturity is pregnancy equal to or more than
- A. 38 completed weeks
- B. 42 completed weeks
- C. 40 completed weeks
- D. 36 completed weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postmaturity refers to pregnancies that last beyond 42 weeks.
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
- A. CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast
- B. CBC with WBC differential
- C. Colonoscopy
- D. Barium enema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a 71-year-old female presenting with left lower quadrant pain and a history of constipation, the most likely differential diagnosis to consider is diverticulitis. A CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast is the diagnostic test of choice for confirming suspected diverticulitis. It is considered the gold standard imaging modality for evaluating acute abdominal pain and can help identify diverticula, inflammation, abscesses, and complications such as perforation or obstruction.
M. R. is a 52-year-old female who presents complaining of significant abdominal pain, which she rates as 8 to 9 on a 1 to 10 scale. The pain has been going on for a matter of hours, and she is afraid it wont go away on its own. She denies any nausea or vomiting, and she cannot remember precisely when her last bowel movement occurred probably it was a few days ago. She reports that she is always constipated. On physical examination, she is tachycardic but otherwise has normal vital signs her abdomen is tensely rigid, but no point tenderness to palpation is appreciated. The entire abdomen percusses as tympanicthere is no distinct dullness over the upper quadrants. Bowel sounds are present but hypoactive and intermittent. There is rebound tenderness to palpation. The AGACNP suspects
- A. Perforated bowel
- B. Peritonitis
- C. Ischemic bowel
- D. Intestinal abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with significant abdominal pain, tachycardia, tensely rigid abdomen, rebound tenderness, hypoactive and intermittent bowel sounds, and tympanic percussion of the entire abdomen is concerning for peritonitis. Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the lining of the abdominal cavity. It is often caused by an infection or irritation, such as from a perforated bowel, which can lead to the leakage of bowel contents into the peritoneal cavity. The presentation of peritonitis includes severe abdominal pain, guarding, rebound tenderness, abdominal distension, and signs of systemic inflammation like tachycardia and fever. In this case, the lack of point tenderness to palpation and the absence of dullness over the upper quadrants make perforated bowel less likely, while the tense rigidity of the abdomen and rebound tenderness are more suggestive of diffuse peritonitis. Ischem
Caesarean section performed at 30 gestational weeks is BEST performed through a
- A. Lower segment incision
- B. Upper segment incision
- C. Extra-peritoneal incision
- D. Classical type of incision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A lower segment incision is the best choice for a cesarean section at 30 weeks gestation.